a client had a c5 spinal cord contusion that resulted in quadriplegia two days after the injury occurred the nurse sees his mother crying in the wait
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN 2023 Quizlet

1. A client had a C5 spinal cord contusion that resulted in quadriplegia. Two days after the injury occurred, the nurse sees his mother crying in the waiting room. The mother asks the nurse whether her son will ever play football again. Which of the following is the best initial response?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best initial response in this situation is to acknowledge the mother's concern, express uncertainty, and offer to obtain more information from the physician. By saying, "I'm not sure, but I'll call the physician to discuss this with you promptly,"? the nurse demonstrates empathy, honesty, and a commitment to providing accurate information. Offering vague reassurance (Choice A) may raise false hopes as outcomes for spinal cord injuries are unpredictable. While maintaining a calm demeanor (Choice B) is important, it does not directly address the mother's immediate need for information. Discouraging the mother from feeling upset (Choice D) is dismissive of her emotions and does not address her question, which is seeking information about her son's prognosis.

2. When administering intravenous electrolyte solution, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering intravenous electrolyte solutions, it is crucial to prevent infiltration of calcium to avoid tissue necrosis and sloughing. Hypertonic solutions should be infused cautiously (Choice A) to prevent adverse effects. The correct amount of potassium to be mixed in a liter of fluid is no more than 60 mEq, making Choice B incorrect. While monitoring the client's digitalis dosage for potential adjustments due to IV calcium administration is important, the statement suggesting an increased dosage is incorrect as IV calcium diminishes digitalis's action, making Choice D incorrect.

3. A patient 3 hours post-op from a hysterectomy is complaining of intense pain at the incision site. When assessing the patient, the nurse notes a BP of 169/93, pulse 145 bpm, and regular. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response. A BP of 169/93 and a pulse of 145 bpm indicate pain-related hypertension and sinus tachycardia, which are physiological responses to pain. Treating the cause of the increased pulse rate requires pain medication. Reassuring the patient about normal post-surgery pain is important, but addressing the physiological responses to pain is a priority. Administering Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is not indicated for pain management but for hypertension. Rechecking the BP and pulse rate without addressing the pain directly does not address the underlying issue causing the elevated vital signs.

4. Erythropoietin used to treat anemia in clients with renal failure should be given in conjunction with:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythropoietin is necessary for red blood cell (RBC) production, and in clients with renal failure who lack endogenous erythropoietin, exogenous erythropoietin is administered. However, for erythropoietin to effectively stimulate RBC production, adequate levels of iron, folic acid, and vitamin B12 are crucial. These nutrients are essential for RBC synthesis and maturation. Therefore, the correct answer is to give iron, folic acid, and B12 with erythropoietin. Choice B, an increase in protein in the diet, is not necessary for RBC production and may exacerbate uremia in clients with renal failure. Choices C and D, vitamins A and C, and an increase in calcium in the diet, respectively, are not directly related to RBC production and are not required to enhance the effectiveness of erythropoietin.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with full-thickness burns to the left arm and trunk. What is the priority for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! With full-thickness burns, there is a significant risk of fluid loss through the burn wound and fluid shift, leading to hypovolemia and shock. Monitoring and maintaining the client's fluid volume status is crucial to prevent complications like hypovolemic shock. Pain management (Option A) is essential but not the priority in this situation. While airway assessment (Option B) is crucial, it is typically assessed first in clients with respiratory distress. Preventing infection (Option D) is important but managing fluid volume status takes precedence in the initial care of a client with full-thickness burns.

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