Nursing Elites

1. A client complaining of chest pain is prescribed an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid). After the infusion is initiated, the occurrence of which symptom warrants the nurse discontinuing an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin?

• A. Frontal headache
• B. Orthostatic hypotension
• C. Decrease in intensity of chest pain
• D. Cool clammy skin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Cool clammy skin.' This assessment finding indicates decreased cardiac output that could result from excessive vasodilation. Cool clammy skin is a sign of poor perfusion, suggesting that the blood pressure might be dropping too low. Discontinuing the nitroglycerin infusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Choice A, 'Frontal headache,' is a common side effect of nitroglycerin but not a reason to discontinue the infusion unless severe or persistent. Choice B, 'Orthostatic hypotension,' may occur as a side effect of nitroglycerin but does not necessarily warrant discontinuation unless severe. Choice C, 'Decrease in intensity of chest pain,' is actually an expected therapeutic response to nitroglycerin and indicates improved myocardial perfusion, so it is not a reason to stop the infusion.

2. Nursing care for a client undergoing chemotherapy includes assessment for signs of bone marrow depression. Which finding accounts for some of the symptoms related to bone marrow depression?

• A. erythrocytosis
• B. leukocytosis
• C. polycythemia
• D. thrombocytopenia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is an abnormal decrease in the number of platelets, which results in bleeding tendencies. During chemotherapy, bone marrow depression can lead to a reduction in platelet production, causing thrombocytopenia. Erythrocytosis is an abnormal increase in red blood cells, leukocytosis is an increase in white blood cells, and polycythemia is an excess of red blood cells, which is synonymous with erythrocytosis. In the context of chemotherapy, the focus is on the decrease in red and white blood cells, making thrombocytopenia the most relevant finding.

3. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• A. increased platelet count
• B. increased fibrinogen
• C. decreased fibrin split products
• D. decreased bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.

4. A nurse is instructing a patient on the order of sensations with the application of an ice water bath for a swollen right ankle. Which of the following is the correct order of sensations experienced with an ice water bath?

• A. cold, burning, aching, and numbness
• B. burning, aching, cold, and numbness
• C. aching, cold, burning, and numbness
• D. cold, aching, burning, and numbness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order of sensations experienced with an ice water bath is cold, burning, aching, and numbness, as stated by the acronym CBAN (cold, burn, ache, numbness). Option A is the correct sequence. Choice B is incorrect as it starts with burning, which typically follows the cold sensation. Choice C is incorrect as aching is usually felt after the burning sensation. Choice D is incorrect as aching usually occurs after the burning sensation.

5. The charge nurse on a cardiac unit tells you a patient is exhibiting signs of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following would not indicate right-sided heart failure?

• A. Muscle tetany
• B. Syncope
• C. Numbness
• D. Anxiety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anxiety.' Anxiety is not a typical sign of right-sided heart failure. Right-sided heart failure usually presents with symptoms such as muscle tetany, syncope, and numbness. Muscle tetany can occur due to electrolyte imbalances seen in heart failure. Syncope can result from decreased cardiac output, leading to decreased perfusion to the brain. Numbness can occur due to poor circulation. While anxiety can be present in patients with various medical conditions, it is more commonly associated with respiratory acidosis or other psychological factors rather than right-sided heart failure.

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