a client complaining of chest pain is prescribed an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin nitro bid after the infusion is initiated the occurrence of
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NCLEX-PN

Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day

1. A client complaining of chest pain is prescribed an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid). After the infusion is initiated, the occurrence of which symptom warrants the nurse discontinuing an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Cool clammy skin.' This assessment finding indicates decreased cardiac output that could result from excessive vasodilation. Cool clammy skin is a sign of poor perfusion, suggesting that the blood pressure might be dropping too low. Discontinuing the nitroglycerin infusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Choice A, 'Frontal headache,' is a common side effect of nitroglycerin but not a reason to discontinue the infusion unless severe or persistent. Choice B, 'Orthostatic hypotension,' may occur as a side effect of nitroglycerin but does not necessarily warrant discontinuation unless severe. Choice C, 'Decrease in intensity of chest pain,' is actually an expected therapeutic response to nitroglycerin and indicates improved myocardial perfusion, so it is not a reason to stop the infusion.

2. A patient has experienced a severe third-degree burn to the trunk in the last 36 hours. Which phase of burn management is the patient in?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shock phase. The shock phase occurs within the first 24-48 hours of burn management. During this phase, the focus is on stabilization, fluid resuscitation, and monitoring for potential complications. Choice B, the Emergent phase, is incorrect as it refers to the initial phase of burn care immediately after the injury. Choice C, the Healing phase, occurs later in the treatment process when the wound starts to repair itself. Choice D, the Wound proliferation phase, is not a recognized phase in burn management.

3. A mother who has never breastfed a child before is having trouble getting the baby to latch on to the breast. The baby has lost 3% of its birth weight within the first 2 days of life. The best statement is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A small amount of weight loss in the first few days is normal.' It is important to reassure the mother that a small amount of weight loss, such as 5-10% of birth weight, in the first few days of life is considered normal for newborns. This reassurance helps alleviate the mother's concerns. Option A is incorrect because it does not address the concern about weight loss; it focuses more on the baby eventually latching on. Option B is not recommended as the first solution for breastfeeding issues, as introducing a bottle early on may lead to nipple confusion. Option D involves escalating the situation to the charge nurse when it can be addressed by providing appropriate information and support directly, making it less necessary in this scenario where reassurance and education are key.

4. A client, age 28, was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. After staging, therapy is planned to include combination radiation therapy and systemic chemotherapy with MOPP"?nitrogen mustard, vincristine (Onconvin), prednisone, and procarbazine. In planning care for this client, the nurse should anticipate which of the following side effects to contribute to a sense of altered body image?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alopecia. Chemotherapy drugs like vincristine can cause alopecia, which is hair loss. This side effect can significantly impact a patient's body image. While Cushingoid appearance (A) can be a side effect of long-term steroid use, temporary or permanent sterility (C) may affect a patient's future fertility but not necessarily alter body image. Pathologic fractures (D) are not common side effects of Hodgkin's disease or its treatment and do not directly contribute to a sense of altered body image in the same way as alopecia does.

5. What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Shock.' Acute renal failure is commonly caused by inadequate blood flow to the kidneys, which can occur in cases of shock. This leads to decreased kidney function and potential kidney damage. While nephrotoxic drugs can also cause acute renal failure, shock is the primary and most common cause. An enlarged prostate may lead to obstructive uropathy but is not the most prevalent cause of acute renal failure. Diabetes is typically associated with chronic kidney disease rather than acute renal failure.

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