Nursing Elites

1. A client complaining of chest pain is prescribed an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid). After the infusion is initiated, the occurrence of which symptom warrants the nurse discontinuing an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin?

• A. Frontal headache
• B. Orthostatic hypotension
• C. Decrease in intensity of chest pain
• D. Cool clammy skin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Cool clammy skin.' This assessment finding indicates decreased cardiac output that could result from excessive vasodilation. Cool clammy skin is a sign of poor perfusion, suggesting that the blood pressure might be dropping too low. Discontinuing the nitroglycerin infusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Choice A, 'Frontal headache,' is a common side effect of nitroglycerin but not a reason to discontinue the infusion unless severe or persistent. Choice B, 'Orthostatic hypotension,' may occur as a side effect of nitroglycerin but does not necessarily warrant discontinuation unless severe. Choice C, 'Decrease in intensity of chest pain,' is actually an expected therapeutic response to nitroglycerin and indicates improved myocardial perfusion, so it is not a reason to stop the infusion.

2. A client is complaining of difficulty walking secondary to a mass in the foot. The nurse should document this finding as:

• A. Plantar fasciitis.
• B. Hallux valgus.
• C. Hammertoe.
• D. Morton's neuroma.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Morton's neuroma. Morton's neuroma is a small mass or tumor in a digital nerve of the foot, causing pain and difficulty walking. Hallux valgus is commonly known as a bunion, involving a bony bump at the base of the big toe. Hammertoe is a condition where one toe is bent abnormally at the middle joint, resembling a hammer. Plantar fasciitis is characterized by pain and inflammation in the arch of the foot, not by a mass causing difficulty walking. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe a mass in the foot leading to difficulty walking, unlike Morton's neuroma.

3. In hanging a parenteral IV fluid that is to be infused by gravity, rather than with an infusion pump, the nurse notes that the IV tubing is available in different drop factors. Which tubing is a microdrop set?

• A. 15 drops per milliliter
• B. 60 drops per milliliter
• C. 20 drops per milliliter
• D. 10 drops per milliliter

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A microdrop set delivers 60 drops per milliliter of IV fluid. This allows for a more precise control of the infusion rate. The correct choice is B because it provides the desired microdrop rate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A delivers 15 drops per milliliter, which is a macrodrop set. C delivers 20 drops per milliliter, also a macrodrop set. D delivers 10 drops per milliliter, another macrodrop set. Therefore, the correct choice for a microdrop set is B.

4. A client receiving drug therapy with furosemide and digitalis requires careful observation and care. In planning care for this client, the nurse should recognize that which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most likely to occur?

• A. hyperkalemia
• B. hypernatremia
• C. hypokalemia
• D. hypomagnesemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is receiving drug therapy with furosemide and digitalis, the nurse should anticipate the development of hypokalemia due to the potassium-wasting effects of furosemide. Hypokalemia can potentiate digitalis toxicity. While hyperkalemia is a concern with some medications, it is not typically associated with furosemide and digitalis. Furosemide can lead to hyponatremia, not hypernatremia, due to its diuretic effect. Hypomagnesemia, though a possible imbalance, is not the most likely to occur in this scenario as furosemide and digitalis are more commonly associated with hypokalemia.

5. A client returns to the nursing unit post-thoracotomy with two chest tubes in place connected to a drainage device. The client's spouse asks the nurse about the reason for having two chest tubes. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that the upper chest tube is placed to:

• A. Remove air from the pleural space
• B. Create access for irrigating the chest cavity
• C. Evacuate secretions from the bronchioles and alveoli
• D. Drain blood and fluid from the pleural space

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Remove air from the pleural space.' When a client has two chest tubes in place post-thoracotomy, the upper chest tube is typically positioned to remove air from the pleural space. Air rises, so placing the tube at the top allows for efficient removal of air that has accumulated in the pleural cavity. Choice B, creating access for irrigating the chest cavity, is incorrect as chest tubes are not primarily used for irrigation. Choice C, evacuating secretions from the bronchioles and alveoli, is incorrect as chest tubes are not designed for this purpose. Choice D, draining blood and fluid from the pleural space, is also incorrect as the upper chest tube in this scenario is specifically for removing air, not blood or fluid.

Similar Questions