NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. A client complaining of chest pain is prescribed an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid). After the infusion is initiated, the occurrence of which symptom warrants the nurse discontinuing an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin?
- A. Frontal headache
- B. Orthostatic hypotension
- C. Decrease in intensity of chest pain
- D. Cool clammy skin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Cool clammy skin.' This assessment finding indicates decreased cardiac output that could result from excessive vasodilation. Cool clammy skin is a sign of poor perfusion, suggesting that the blood pressure might be dropping too low. Discontinuing the nitroglycerin infusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Choice A, 'Frontal headache,' is a common side effect of nitroglycerin but not a reason to discontinue the infusion unless severe or persistent. Choice B, 'Orthostatic hypotension,' may occur as a side effect of nitroglycerin but does not necessarily warrant discontinuation unless severe. Choice C, 'Decrease in intensity of chest pain,' is actually an expected therapeutic response to nitroglycerin and indicates improved myocardial perfusion, so it is not a reason to stop the infusion.
2. The nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin therapy (Coumadin�) following a stroke. The client's PT/INR was completed at 7:00 A.M. prior to the morning meal with an INR reading of 4.0. Which of the following is the nurse's first priority?
- A. Call the physician to request an increase in the Coumadin� dose.
- B. Administer a vitamin K injection IM and notify the physician of the results.
- C. Assess the client for bleeding around the gums or in the stool and notify the physician of the lab results and latest dose of Coumadin�.
- D. Notify the next shift to hold the daily dose of Coumadin� scheduled for 5:00 P.M.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client receiving warfarin therapy with a high INR of 4.0, the nurse's first priority is to administer a vitamin K injection intramuscularly (IM) and notify the physician of the results. An INR of 4.0 indicates excessive anticoagulation, putting the client at risk of bleeding. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin overdose and helps to reverse its effects. It is crucial to administer vitamin K promptly to prevent bleeding complications. Calling the physician to request an increase in the Coumadin� dose is inappropriate and dangerous in this situation, as it would further raise the INR. Assessing the client for bleeding and notifying the physician is important but not the first priority when faced with a critically high INR. Holding the daily dose of Coumadin� may be necessary after administering vitamin K, but it is not the primary action needed to address the acute high INR level.
3. The client is wheezing and struggling to breathe. Which of the inhaled medications is indicated at this time?
- A. Fluticasone (Flovent)
- B. Salmeterol (Serevent)
- C. Theophylline (Theodur)
- D. Albuterol (Atrovent)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Albuterol (Atrovent) because it is a rapid-acting bronchodilator, essential for a client experiencing wheezing and difficulty breathing. Albuterol acts quickly, dilating the airways and providing immediate relief in cases of respiratory distress. Fluticasone (Flovent) and Salmeterol (Serevent) are maintenance medications for long-term asthma control, not suitable for acute situations described. Theophylline (Theodur) is a bronchodilator but with a slower onset compared to Albuterol, making it less appropriate for a client in immediate distress.
4. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk for suicide?
- A. 76-year-old widow with chronic renal failure
- B. 19-year-old with new SSRI therapy
- C. 28-year-old post-partum crying weekly
- D. 50-year-old client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and depression
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 76-year-old widow with chronic renal failure. Elderly individuals with chronic diseases, especially men, are at very high risk for suicide. The other choices, although they may be vulnerable populations, do not carry as high a risk for suicide. The 19-year-old with new SSRI therapy may actually have a lower risk as they are receiving treatment. The 28-year-old post-partum individual is experiencing a common emotional response after childbirth, which is not necessarily indicative of a high suicide risk. The 50-year-old with OCD and depression is at risk but not as high as elderly individuals with chronic illness.
5. Which factor in a client’s health history increases their risk for cancer?
- A. Family history and environment
- B. Alcohol and smoking
- C. Alcohol consumption and smoking
- D. Proximity to an electric plant and water source
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Alcohol and smoking.' Both alcohol consumption and smoking are well-known risk factors for various types of cancer. They have a synergistic effect, meaning their combined impact raises the risk significantly. Family history and environment (Choice A) may play a role in certain cancers, but alcohol and smoking are more directly linked to increased cancer risk. Proximity to an electric plant and water source (Choice D) is not typically associated with an increased risk of cancer compared to alcohol and smoking.
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