Nursing Elites

1. A client complaining of chest pain is prescribed an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid). After the infusion is initiated, the occurrence of which symptom warrants the nurse discontinuing an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin?

• A. Frontal headache
• B. Orthostatic hypotension
• C. Decrease in intensity of chest pain
• D. Cool clammy skin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Cool clammy skin.' This assessment finding indicates decreased cardiac output that could result from excessive vasodilation. Cool clammy skin is a sign of poor perfusion, suggesting that the blood pressure might be dropping too low. Discontinuing the nitroglycerin infusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Choice A, 'Frontal headache,' is a common side effect of nitroglycerin but not a reason to discontinue the infusion unless severe or persistent. Choice B, 'Orthostatic hypotension,' may occur as a side effect of nitroglycerin but does not necessarily warrant discontinuation unless severe. Choice C, 'Decrease in intensity of chest pain,' is actually an expected therapeutic response to nitroglycerin and indicates improved myocardial perfusion, so it is not a reason to stop the infusion.

2. A nurse working in a pediatric clinic observes the following situations. Which of the following may indicate a delayed child to the nurse?

• A. A 12-month-old that does not 'cruise'.
• B. An 8-month-old that can sit upright unsupported.
• C. A 6-month-old that is rolling prone to supine.
• D. A 3-month-old that does not roll supine to prone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A 12-month-old that does not 'cruise''. At 12 months, a child should at least be 'cruising' (holding on to objects to walk), which is considered pre-walking. The other choices describe age-appropriate developmental milestones: sitting upright unsupported by 8 months, rolling prone to supine by 6 months, and rolling supine to prone by 3 months. Not 'cruising' at 12 months may indicate a delay in motor skills development.

3. A patient has recently been prescribed Lidocaine Hydrochloride. Which of the following symptoms may occur with an overdose?

• A. Memory loss and lack of appetite
• B. Confusion and fatigue
• C. Heightened reflexes
• D. Tinnitus and spasticity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Confusion and fatigue.' Lidocaine Hydrochloride, when taken in excess, can lead to symptoms such as confusion and fatigue. It affects the central nervous system, leading to these cognitive and physical impairments. Choice A ('Memory loss and lack of appetite') is incorrect because memory loss is not a common symptom of Lidocaine Hydrochloride overdose, and lack of appetite is not a typical effect. Choice C ('Heightened reflexes') is incorrect as Lidocaine Hydrochloride overdose usually depresses reflexes rather than heightening them. Choice D ('Tinnitus and spasticity') is incorrect as tinnitus and spasticity are not commonly associated with Lidocaine Hydrochloride overdose.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is 28 weeks pregnant and complains of swollen hands and feet. Which symptom below would cause the greatest concern?

• A. Nasal congestion
• B. Hiccups
• C. Blood glucose of 150
• D. Muscle spasms

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is muscle spasms because they can be indicative of a severe condition like preeclampsia, which is a serious complication during pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, most often the liver and kidneys. Nasal congestion and hiccups are common discomforts during pregnancy and do not pose a severe risk to the client or fetus. A blood glucose level of 150, while slightly elevated, may not be alarming in a pregnant individual and can be managed through dietary modifications or medication adjustments. Muscle spasms, especially in the context of pregnancy, should be taken seriously and thoroughly assessed to rule out any underlying serious conditions.

5. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is the drug of choice for thyroid replacement therapy in clients with hypothyroidism because:

• A. it is chemically stable, nonallergenic, and can be administered orally once a day.
• B. it is available in a wide range of concentrations to meet individual client requirements.
• C. it is a prodrug of T3.
• D. it has a long half-life.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is the preferred medication for hypothyroidism due to its chemical stability, nonallergenic properties, and convenient once-daily oral administration. It is safe and effective with minimal side effects when appropriately dosed. Choice B is incorrect because while Levothyroxine is available in various concentrations, it is not the reason it is the drug of choice; the primary reason is its stability and nonallergenic nature. Choice C is wrong as Levothyroxine (T4) is not a prodrug of T3; it is converted to T3 in the body. Option D is inaccurate because Levothyroxine has a long half-life (around 7 days), enabling once-daily dosing, as opposed to a short half-life.

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