NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. A client complaining of chest pain is prescribed an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid). After the infusion is initiated, the occurrence of which symptom warrants the nurse discontinuing an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin?
- A. Frontal headache
- B. Orthostatic hypotension
- C. Decrease in intensity of chest pain
- D. Cool clammy skin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Cool clammy skin.' This assessment finding indicates decreased cardiac output that could result from excessive vasodilation. Cool clammy skin is a sign of poor perfusion, suggesting that the blood pressure might be dropping too low. Discontinuing the nitroglycerin infusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Choice A, 'Frontal headache,' is a common side effect of nitroglycerin but not a reason to discontinue the infusion unless severe or persistent. Choice B, 'Orthostatic hypotension,' may occur as a side effect of nitroglycerin but does not necessarily warrant discontinuation unless severe. Choice C, 'Decrease in intensity of chest pain,' is actually an expected therapeutic response to nitroglycerin and indicates improved myocardial perfusion, so it is not a reason to stop the infusion.
2. One of the major functions of the kidneys in maintaining normal fluid balance is:
- A. the manufacture of antidiuretic hormone.
- B. the regulation of calcium and phosphate balance.
- C. the regulation of the pH of the extracellular fluid.
- D. the control of aldosterone levels.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'the regulation of the pH of the extracellular fluid.' The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining normal fluid balance by regulating extracellular fluid and osmolarity through selective retention and excretion of fluids. Additionally, they regulate the pH of the extracellular fluid by retaining hydrogen ions and excreting metabolic wastes and toxic substances. Choice A is incorrect because antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is manufactured by the pituitary gland, not the kidneys. Choice B is incorrect as the regulation of calcium and phosphate balance is primarily controlled by the parathyroid gland. Choice D is incorrect as aldosterone levels are controlled by the adrenal glands, not the kidneys.
3. A newborn baby exhibits a reflex that includes hand opening, abducted, and extended extremities following a jarring motion. Which of the following correctly identifies the reflex?
- A. ATNR reflex
- B. Startle reflex
- C. Grasping reflex
- D. Moro reflex
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is the correct answer. This reflex is characterized by the baby's response to a sudden head movement or loud noise, causing them to open their hands, extend their arms, and then bring them back towards their body. The characteristics mentioned in the question - hand opening, abducted, and extended extremities following a jarring motion - align with the Moro reflex. The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR) involves the head turning to one side with extension of the same side's arm and leg, not the described characteristics. The grasping reflex involves the baby's response to touch on the palm, causing them to grasp an object. While the Moro reflex is often referred to as the startle reflex due to its response to sudden stimuli, the specific characteristics described in the question match the Moro reflex.
4. Which of the following viruses is most likely to be acquired through casual contact with an infected individual?
- A. influenza virus
- B. herpes virus
- C. cytomegalovirus (CMV)
- D. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is influenza virus. Influenza virus is most likely to be acquired through casual contact with an infected individual as it is transmitted through respiratory droplets. Herpes virus is primarily transmitted by direct contact, such as skin-to-skin contact, making it less likely to be acquired through casual contact. HIV is mainly transmitted through blood and body fluids like semen and vaginal fluids, not through casual contact. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is an opportunistic infection commonly affecting immunocompromised individuals and is usually transmitted through close personal contact, not casual contact.
5. The nurse has just received a change-of-shift report. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150cc drainage
- B. A client 2 days post-gastrectomy with scant drainage
- C. A client with pneumonia with an oral temperature of 102°F
- D. A client with a fractured hip in Buck's traction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should assess the client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150cc drainage first because postoperative assessments are crucial during the immediate postoperative period. This client may be at higher risk for complications, such as bleeding or infection, requiring immediate attention. Clients in choices B, C, and D are relatively stable and can be assessed after the immediate postoperative client has been evaluated.
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