Nursing Elites

1. What could be a possible cause for the symptoms experienced by the client in Question 28?

• A. iron deficiency
• B. folate deficiency
• C. peptic ulcer
• D. iron overload

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Given the client's symptoms of fatigue, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness, along with her gender and fad dieting, the most likely cause is iron deficiency. Iron deficiency commonly presents with these symptoms due to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood. Folate deficiency would typically present with different symptoms such as mouth sores and changes in skin, not fitting the client's presentation. Peptic ulcer would manifest with abdominal pain, not primarily with the symptoms described. Iron overload would present with symptoms such as joint pain and fatigue, which are not consistent with the client's presentation.

2. A client, age 28, was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. After staging, therapy is planned to include combination radiation therapy and systemic chemotherapy with MOPP"?nitrogen mustard, vincristine (Onconvin), prednisone, and procarbazine. In planning care for this client, the nurse should anticipate which of the following side effects to contribute to a sense of altered body image?

• A. Cushingoid appearance
• B. Alopecia
• C. Temporary or permanent sterility
• D. Pathologic fractures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: alopecia. Chemotherapy drugs like vincristine and nitrogen mustard commonly cause hair loss (alopecia), which can significantly impact body image. While a Cushingoid appearance can be a side effect of long-term steroid use, it is not typically associated with the chemotherapy regimen mentioned. Temporary or permanent sterility can result from chemotherapy, affecting fertility but not directly contributing to altered body image. Pathologic fractures are not commonly linked to Hodgkin's disease or its treatment, unlike alopecia which is a well-known side effect.

3. The client has just returned from electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) and is very drowsy. What is the position of choice until the client regains full consciousness?

• A. Supine
• B. Fowlers
• C. Lateral
• D. High Fowlers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lateral.' When a client is very drowsy or sedated, placing them in the lateral position is important to maintain an open airway and allow for drainage of secretions. This position helps prevent airway obstruction and aspiration. Choice A, 'Supine,' is lying flat on the back and may not be ideal for a drowsy client due to the risk of airway compromise. Choice B, 'Fowlers,' is a semi-sitting position that is beneficial for clients with respiratory distress, but it may not be the best choice for a very drowsy individual. Choice D, 'High Fowlers,' is a more upright sitting position, which again may not be suitable for a drowsy client as it does not facilitate airway patency as effectively as the lateral position.

4. The drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels is:

• A. prednisone (Colisone)
• B. allopurinol (Zyloprim)
• C. indomethacin (Indocin)
• D. hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is allopurinol (Zyloprim) as it is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor that decreases uric acid formation. Allopurinol is commonly used to manage gout by lowering uric acid levels. Prednisone is a corticosteroid used to decrease inflammation, not to lower uric acid levels. Indomethacin is an analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic agent, but it is not the drug of choice for lowering uric acid levels. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic used to treat hypertension and edema, not to decrease uric acid levels.

5. Acyclovir is the drug of choice for:

• A. HIV
• B. HSV 1 and 2 and VZV
• C. CMV
• D. influenza A viruses

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir (Zovirax) is specifically used to treat infections caused by herpes simplex virus types 1 and 2 (HSV-1 and HSV-2) and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). These include conditions like cold sores, genital herpes, and shingles. Acyclovir works by inhibiting viral DNA replication, leading to the formation of shorter, ineffective DNA chains. It is important to note that acyclovir is not effective against other viruses like HIV, cytomegalovirus (CMV), or influenza A viruses. Therefore, the correct answer is HSV 1 and 2 and VZV.

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