aclient has chronic respiratory acidosis caused byend stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd oxygen is delivered at 1 lmin per nasal cannula aclient has chronic respiratory acidosis caused byend stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd oxygen is delivered at 1 lmin per nasal cannula
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NCLEX NCLEX-PN

NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023

1. A client has chronic respiratory acidosis caused by end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Oxygen is delivered at 1 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse teaches the family that the reason for this is to avoid respiratory depression, based on which of the following explanations?

Correct answer: COPD clients are stimulated to breathe by hypoxia.

Rationale: In clients with COPD and chronic respiratory acidosis, they are compensating for low oxygen and high carbon dioxide levels. Hypoxia acts as the main stimulus to breathe in individuals with chronic hypercapnia. When oxygen is administered, it can decrease the respiratory drive by eliminating the hypoxic drive and reducing the stimulus to breathe. Therefore, delivering oxygen at 1 L/min via nasal cannula helps prevent respiratory depression by maintaining the hypoxic drive to breathe. The other options are incorrect: COPD clients do not depend on a low carbon dioxide level as they are chronically hypercapnic, they do not retain hydrogen ions with high oxygen doses, and they do not thrive on a high oxygen level.

2. The nurse is providing post-operative care to the craniotomy client. Diabetes insipidus is suspected when the client’s urine output suddenly increases significantly. Which action takes highest priority?

Correct answer: Check a blood pressure

Rationale: The correct answer is to check a blood pressure. Diabetes insipidus can lead to dehydration and potential hypovolemic shock due to excessive urine output. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to assess the client's circulatory status and detect signs of shock early. Checking the blood pressure will provide essential information on perfusion, which is vital in this situation. Continuing to monitor urine output, checking a pulse, or assessing the level of consciousness are important but not as high a priority as evaluating the blood pressure in a potentially critical situation like suspected diabetes insipidus.

3. When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field

Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.

4. A nurse working in a pediatric clinic observes bruises on the body of a four-year-old boy. The parents report the boy fell while riding his bike. The bruises are located on his posterior chest wall and gluteal region. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: Notify the case manager in the clinic about possible child abuse concerns.

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is observing bruises on a child's body that are located in areas not commonly associated with accidental injuries. Given the concerning nature of the bruising pattern and the inconsistent history provided by the parents, the nurse should suspect possible child abuse and take appropriate action by notifying the case manager in the clinic. The safety and well-being of the child should always be the top priority. Counseling for the family, warm baths, or recommending range of motion (ROM) exercises are not appropriate actions in this situation and may not address the underlying issue of potential child abuse.

5. A health care provider writes a medication prescription in a client’s record. While transcribing the prescription, the nurse notes that the prescribed dose is three times higher than the recommended dose. The nurse calls the health care provider, who states that this is the dose that the client takes at home and that it is acceptable for this client’s condition. What is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: Contacting the nursing supervisor

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse has identified a significant discrepancy between the prescribed dose and the recommended dose. While the health care provider has justified the higher dose based on the client's home regimen, the nurse's primary responsibility is to ensure patient safety. If a nurse has concerns about a prescription being incorrect or potentially harmful, they should seek further clarification from the health care provider. Since the nurse still believes the dose is inappropriate after discussing with the health care provider, the next appropriate action is to contact the nursing supervisor. Continuing to transcribe the prescription without addressing the concern could jeopardize the client's safety. Asking another nurse to administer the medication without proper resolution of the dosage concern would also pose a risk to the client. While verifying the prescribed dose with the client is important, in this situation, the nurse should first escalate the issue to the nursing supervisor to ensure appropriate actions are taken.

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