NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The nurse is caring for a client complaining of intense headaches with increasing pain for the past one month. An MRI is ordered. In reviewing the client's information, which piece of information is of concern?
- A. Allergy to shellfish
- B. Has a cardiac pacemaker
- C. A diabetic
- D. No IV access
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Has a cardiac pacemaker.' If a client with a cardiac pacemaker undergoes an MRI, the magnetic field can interfere with the pacemaker's function, leading to serious complications or even death. It is crucial to ensure that the pacemaker is compatible with MRI imaging or to consider alternative imaging modalities. The other choices, such as 'Allergy to shellfish,' 'A diabetic,' and 'No IV access,' are not direct contraindications for an MRI scan and do not pose the same level of risk as having a cardiac pacemaker.
2. What must the evening nurse do to facilitate the client's ECT treatment the next morning?
- A. Ensure the patient signs an informed consent form
- B. Administer evening medications
- C. Ensure the patient gets a good night's sleep
- D. Provide dietary restrictions as per ECT protocol
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) treatment, obtaining informed consent is crucial before the procedure. This ensures the patient is aware of the risks, benefits, and alternatives to the treatment. Administering medications, ensuring rest, and dietary restrictions are important but not directly related to the specific requirement of obtaining informed consent for ECT. The correct answer, ensuring the patient signs an informed consent form, is essential to uphold the patient's autonomy and ensure they have the necessary information to make an informed decision about their treatment.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's arterial blood gas values. Which of the following conditions apply under the following values? pH- 7.49 Bicarbonate ion 24 mEq/dl PaCO2 - 31 mmHg PaO2 - 52 mmHg FiO2 - 0.22
- A. respiratory acidosis
- B. respiratory alkalosis
- C. metabolic acidosis
- D. metabolic alkalosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The given blood gas values indicate respiratory alkalosis. A high pH and low PaCO2 level are consistent with respiratory alkalosis. In this scenario, no compensation for the alkalosis is noted, ruling out metabolic acidosis or alkalosis. Metabolic conditions would usually involve changes in bicarbonate levels, which remain within the normal range in this case.
4. The nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin therapy (Coumadin�) following a stroke. The client's PT/INR was completed at 7:00 A.M. prior to the morning meal with an INR reading of 4.0. Which of the following is the nurse's first priority?
- A. Call the physician to request an increase in the Coumadin� dose.
- B. Administer a vitamin K injection IM and notify the physician of the results.
- C. Assess the client for bleeding around the gums or in the stool and notify the physician of the lab results and latest dose of Coumadin�.
- D. Notify the next shift to hold the daily dose of Coumadin� scheduled for 5:00 P.M.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client receiving warfarin therapy with a high INR of 4.0, the nurse's first priority is to administer a vitamin K injection intramuscularly (IM) and notify the physician of the results. An INR of 4.0 indicates excessive anticoagulation, putting the client at risk of bleeding. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin overdose and helps to reverse its effects. It is crucial to administer vitamin K promptly to prevent bleeding complications. Calling the physician to request an increase in the Coumadin� dose is inappropriate and dangerous in this situation, as it would further raise the INR. Assessing the client for bleeding and notifying the physician is important but not the first priority when faced with a critically high INR. Holding the daily dose of Coumadin� may be necessary after administering vitamin K, but it is not the primary action needed to address the acute high INR level.
5. A client goes to the Emergency Department with acute respiratory distress and the following arterial blood gases (ABGs): pH 7.35, PCO2 40 mmHg, PO2 63mmHg, HCO3 23, and oxygenation saturation (SAO2) 93%. Which of the following represents the best analysis of the etiology of these ABGs?
- A. tuberculosis (TB)
- B. pneumonia
- C. pleural effusion
- D. hypoxia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A combined low PO2 and low SAO2 indicates hypoxia. The pH, PCO2, and HCO3 are normal. ABGs are not necessarily altered in TB or pleural effusion. In pneumonia, the PO2 and PCO2 might be low because hypoxia stimulates hyperventilation, but the best analysis in this case is hypoxia due to the combination of low PO2 and low SAO2.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access