the nurse is caring for a client complaining of intense headaches with increasing pain for the past one month a mri is ordered in reviewing the client
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day

1. The nurse is caring for a client complaining of intense headaches with increasing pain for the past one month. An MRI is ordered. In reviewing the client's information, which piece of information is of concern?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Has a cardiac pacemaker.' If a client with a cardiac pacemaker undergoes an MRI, the magnetic field can interfere with the pacemaker's function, leading to serious complications or even death. It is crucial to ensure that the pacemaker is compatible with MRI imaging or to consider alternative imaging modalities. The other choices, such as 'Allergy to shellfish,' 'A diabetic,' and 'No IV access,' are not direct contraindications for an MRI scan and do not pose the same level of risk as having a cardiac pacemaker.

2. Which symptoms is the client who overdosed on barbiturates most likely to exhibit?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is bradypnea and bradycardia. Barbiturates are central nervous system (CNS) depressants, which will slow down the respiratory rate (bradypnea) and heart rate (bradycardia). Choice B, hyperthermia and drowsiness, is incorrect as barbiturate overdose typically does not cause hyperthermia but rather hypothermia. Hyperreflexia and slurred speech (Choice C) are more indicative of stimulant overdoses rather than CNS depressants like barbiturates. Tachycardia and psychosis (Choice D) are also not typically seen in barbiturate overdose, as these drugs tend to depress the CNS rather than cause symptoms of increased heart rate or psychosis.

3. A client begins a regimen of chemotherapy. Her platelet count falls to 98,000. Which action is least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to implement reverse isolation. Reverse isolation is a protective measure used to protect patients from infections, not to affect the risk of hemorrhage. Testing all excreta for occult blood (Choice A) is important to monitor for signs of internal bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene (Choice B) is recommended to prevent gum bleeding. Avoiding IM injections (Choice D) is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with a low platelet count. Therefore, among the given options, implementing reverse isolation is the least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage.

4. If a client is suffering from thyroid storm, the PN can expect to find on assessment:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In thyroid storm, there is an excess of thyroxine, leading to symptoms such as tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and hyperthermia (increased body temperature). Atrial fibrillation and palpitations are also commonly observed. Choices B and C are more indicative of hypothyroidism, where the thyroid is underactive, leading to bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypothermia (decreased body temperature), and the development of a large goiter. Choice D, a calm, quiet client, is unlikely in a thyroid storm where the individual would typically present with symptoms of agitation and restlessness due to the hypermetabolic state.

5. Which of the following organs of the digestive system has a primary function of absorption?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The small intestine is the correct answer. It is the primary organ responsible for absorption in the digestive system. The stomach's primary function is to break down food through mechanical and chemical digestion. The pancreas produces digestive enzymes to aid in the breakdown of food. The gallbladder stores bile produced by the liver, which helps in the digestion of fats. However, neither the stomach, pancreas, nor gallbladder play the primary role of absorption in the digestive process, making them incorrect choices.

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