Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following might be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client?

• A. Dysreflexia
• B. Risk for Injury
• C. Urinary Retention
• D. Unbalanced Nutrition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for Injury.' Epileptic clients are at risk for injury due to complications of seizure activity, such as falls that could lead to head trauma. 'Dysreflexia' is not typically associated with epilepsy but rather with spinal cord injury. 'Urinary Retention' is not a common nursing diagnosis for epileptic clients unless specifically indicated. 'Unbalanced Nutrition' may not be a priority nursing diagnosis compared to the immediate risk of injury in epileptic clients.

2. When a client is having a seizure and their blood oxygen saturation drops from 92% to 82%, what should the nurse do first?

• A. Open the airway.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Suction the client.
• D. Check for breathing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is experiencing a seizure and their blood oxygen saturation drops, the priority action for the nurse is to open the airway. Ensuring a clear airway is essential to maintain oxygenation during a seizure episode. Administering oxygen may be necessary but is secondary to ensuring a patent airway. Suctioning the client should only be done if there is an airway obstruction. Checking for breathing is important, but opening the airway takes precedence to support ventilation and oxygenation.

3. What is the appropriate intervention for a client who is restrained?

• A. Remove the restraints and provide skin care every hour.
• B. Document the condition of the client's skin every 3 hours.
• C. Assess the restraint every 30 minutes
• D. Tie the restraint to the side rails.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention when a client is restrained is to assess the restraint every 30 minutes. This ensures the safety and well-being of the client by checking for proper fit, circulation, and signs of distress. Removing restraints and providing skin care every hour may not be necessary and could increase the risk of skin breakdown. Documenting the skin condition every 3 hours is important but not the immediate intervention needed when a client is restrained. Tying the restraint to the side rails is unsafe and can cause harm to the client, as restraints should be secured to the bed frame or an immovable part of the bed.

4. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

• A. renal failure
• B. psoriasis
• C. lupus
• D. cirrhosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with cirrhosis is at risk for developing a high ammonia level due to impaired liver function. The liver normally converts ammonia into urea for excretion. In cirrhosis, this process is compromised, leading to elevated ammonia levels in the blood. Renal failure, psoriasis, and lupus do not typically cause high ammonia levels. Renal failure affects kidney function, while psoriasis and lupus are autoimmune conditions that do not directly impact ammonia metabolism.

5. Which of the following medications might cause upper-gastrointestinal (UGI) bleeding?

• A. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• B. Naprosyn (naproxen)
• C. Elavil (amitriptyline)
• D. Corgard (nadolol)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Naprosyn (naproxen) is known to cause upper-gastrointestinal (UGI) bleeding due to its effects on the stomach lining. Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can irritate the stomach and increase the risk of UGI bleeding. On the other hand, Cardizem (diltiazem), Elavil (amitriptyline), and Corgard (nadolol) are not typically associated with UGI bleeding. Cardizem is a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension and angina, Elavil is a tricyclic antidepressant, and Corgard is a beta-blocker used for hypertension.

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