Nursing Elites

1. Quality is defined as a combination of all of the following except:

• A. conforming to standards.
• B. performing at the minimally acceptable level.
• C. meeting or exceeding customer requirements.
• D. exceeding customer expectations.

Correct answer: performing at the minimally acceptable level.

Rationale: Quality in any context is about meeting or exceeding customer requirements and exceeding customer expectations. It also involves conforming to standards to ensure consistency and reliability. Merely performing at the minimally acceptable level does not encompass the essence of quality, as it sets the bar at the lowest level of acceptability rather than aiming for excellence or customer satisfaction. Therefore, the correct answer is 'performing at the minimally acceptable level,' as this choice falls short in capturing the comprehensive definition of quality.

2. A nurse is taking a morning break with the unit secretary in the nurses’ lounge. The unit secretary says to the nurse, 'I read in Mr. Gage’s medical record that he has gonorrhea.' How should the nurse respond to the secretary?

• A. Yes, he does, but be sure not to discuss this with anyone else.
• B. Yes, that’s why we’ve imposed contact precautions.
• C. We can’t discuss a client’s medical condition.
• D. Oh, really? I didn’t see that!

Correct answer: We can’t discuss a client’s medical condition.

Rationale: A client’s medical condition is confidential and should never be discussed with anyone other than the client and the client’s healthcare provider. Therefore, the nurse must tell the unit secretary that the client’s condition is not to be discussed. Choices A and B confirm the client’s disease, which is inappropriate as it breaches patient confidentiality. Choice D promotes further discussion of the client’s condition, which is also inappropriate. The correct response is to firmly state, 'We can’t discuss a client’s medical condition,' to uphold patient privacy and confidentiality.

3. Which of the following symptoms is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia in the client with a spinal cord injury?

• A. sudden onset of headache
• B. flushed face
• C. hypotension
• D. nasal congestion

Correct answer: hypotension

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by a sudden onset of symptoms due to an overactive autonomic nervous system. Hypotension is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia; instead, hypertension is a hallmark sign. Therefore, hypotension is the correct answer. Flushed face, sudden onset of headache, and nasal congestion are classic symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia caused by a noxious stimulus below the level of the spinal cord injury. These symptoms result from the body's attempt to regulate blood pressure when the normal feedback loop is interrupted.

4. Which direction given to the nursing assistant is most likely to accomplish the task of getting a urine specimen delivered to the lab immediately after collection?

• A. “Make it a stat delivery.”
• B. “Please do it as soon as you can after break.”
• C. “This client is delirious, and we’re worried about urinary sepsis.”
• D. “Take this client to the bathroom now and collect a urine specimen from this voiding. Take the specimen to the lab immediately.”

Correct answer: “Take this client to the bathroom now and collect a urine specimen from this voiding. Take the specimen to the lab immediately.”

Rationale: Effective delegation depends on clear, concise direction that leaves no room for question or interpretation on the part of the one being delegated to. In this scenario, the most appropriate direction is to ensure the urine specimen is collected promptly and delivered to the lab immediately. Choice A is too vague and does not specify the urgency required. Choice B does not emphasize the immediate need for the specimen to be delivered. Choice C introduces unnecessary medical information that is beyond the scope of a nursing assistant and may cause confusion. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer as it provides clear instructions for immediate action without room for misunderstanding.

5. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

• A. LDH
• B. troponin
• C. CPK
• D. SGOT

Correct answer: troponin

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

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