Nursing Elites

1. What is the 24-hour day-night cycle known as?

• A. circadian rhythm
• B. infradian rhythm
• C. ultradian rhythm
• D. non-REM rhythm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is circadian rhythm. Circadian rhythm refers to the rhythmic repetition of patterns that occur approximately every 24 hours, regulating various biological processes related to the day-night cycle. Infradian rhythm, which is longer than 24 hours, and ultradian rhythm, which is shorter than 24 hours, are not the correct terms for the 24-hour cycle. Non-REM rhythm does not specifically relate to the 24-hour day-night cycle, making it an incorrect choice.

2. A nurse in charge of a long-term care facility who is working with a nursing assistant on the night shift prepares to take a break. To ensure client safety during the break, which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.

• A. Asking the nursing assistant to contact the health care provider during the nurse’s break if a client’s pain medication is not effective
• B. Informing the nursing assistant that she is leaving the nursing unit to get a cup of coffee from a vending machine in the lobby
• C. Asking the nursing assistant to administer a medication placed at the client's bedside if the client awakens
• D. Conducting client rounds before taking the break

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse is responsible for ensuring client safety at all times and must not leave the nursing unit for any reason during the shift. The nurse’s break should be taken in a designated area located on the nursing unit. Before taking the break, the nurse should check all clients to ensure that they are safe and comfortable and that their needs have been met. Conducting client rounds before taking the break is crucial to assess the clients' conditions and address any immediate needs, ensuring their safety. Asking the nursing assistant to contact the health care provider during the nurse’s break is not appropriate as the nurse should handle this responsibility. Leaving the nursing unit to get coffee is not recommended as the nurse should stay within the unit to respond promptly to any client needs. Asking the nursing assistant to administer medication or make clinical decisions is outside the scope of their practice and should not be delegated.

3. Major competencies for the nurse giving end-of-life care include:

• A. demonstrating respect and compassion, and applying knowledge and skills in care of the family and the client.
• B. assessing and intervening to support total management of the family and client.
• C. setting goals, expectations, and dynamic changes to care for the client.
• D. keeping all sad news away from the family and client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In providing end-of-life care, nurses must possess essential competencies. Demonstrating respect and compassion, along with applying knowledge and skills in caring for both the family and the client, are crucial competencies. These skills help create a supportive and empathetic environment for individuals facing end-of-life situations. Choice B is incorrect because while assessing and intervening are important, they do not encompass the core competencies required for end-of-life care. Choice C is also incorrect; although setting goals and expectations is valuable, the primary focus should be on providing compassionate care. Choice D is incorrect as withholding sad news goes against the principles of honesty and transparency in end-of-life care.

4. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Secondary prevention.
• C. Tertiary prevention.
• D. Disability prevention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

5. Which is the proper hand position for performing chest vibration?

• A. cup the hands
• B. use the side of the hands
• C. flatten the hands
• D. spread the fingers of both hands

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct hand position for performing chest vibration is to flatten the hands. By flattening the hands over the area of the body where chest percussion is applied, vibrations can be conducted effectively to the chest to help loosen secretions. Cupping the hands may dampen vibrations, using the side of the hands reduces the surface area in contact with the chest, and spreading the fingers can lead to uneven pressure distribution. Therefore, flattening the hands provides the necessary contact and surface area to perform chest vibration efficiently.

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