Nursing Elites

1. What is the 24-hour day-night cycle known as?

• A. circadian rhythm
• B. infradian rhythm
• C. ultradian rhythm
• D. non-REM rhythm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is circadian rhythm. Circadian rhythm refers to the rhythmic repetition of patterns that occur approximately every 24 hours, regulating various biological processes related to the day-night cycle. Infradian rhythm, which is longer than 24 hours, and ultradian rhythm, which is shorter than 24 hours, are not the correct terms for the 24-hour cycle. Non-REM rhythm does not specifically relate to the 24-hour day-night cycle, making it an incorrect choice.

2. Signs of internal bleeding include all of the following except:

• A. painful or swollen extremities
• B. a tender, rigid abdomen
• C. vomiting bile
• D. bruising

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vomiting bile is not typically a sign of internal bleeding but is more commonly associated with issues in the gastrointestinal tract. Signs of internal bleeding include painful or swollen extremities, a tender, rigid abdomen, and bruising. Painful or swollen extremities can indicate bleeding from an extremity injury, a tender, rigid abdomen can signal abdominal bleeding, and bruising can result from blood vessel damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'C: vomiting bile,' as it is not a typical sign of internal bleeding.

3. A licensed practical nurse (LPN) works on an adult medical/surgical unit and has been pulled to work on the burn unit, which cares for clients of all ages. What should the LPN do?

• A. The LPN should take the assignment, but make it clear they will only care for adult clients.
• B. The LPN should take the assignment, but explain the situation to the charge nurse and ask for a quick orientation before starting.
• C. The LPN should refuse to take the assignment, as caring for the infant and child population is not within their scope of practice.
• D. The LPN should take the assignment, but ask to be paired with a more experienced LPN.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial for the LPN to demonstrate flexibility and a willingness to adapt to the new assignment that involves caring for clients of all ages. While the LPN may have expertise in a specific nursing area, it is essential to be able to provide care to diverse client populations. Accepting the assignment reflects a commitment to teamwork and patient care. However, to ensure safe and competent care, the LPN should communicate with the charge nurse about the situation. Requesting a quick orientation will help the LPN familiarize themselves with the burn unit's specific requirements, equipment, and protocols. This proactive approach allows the LPN to address any concerns, ask questions, and seek necessary support, ultimately ensuring the best care for all clients in the burn unit. Choice A is incorrect because limiting care to only adult clients may not be feasible in a unit that cares for clients of all ages. Choice C is incorrect as refusing the assignment outright may not be the best approach without considering alternatives. Choice D is not the most effective option as asking to be paired with a more experienced LPN does not address the need for a quick orientation to the new unit.

4. A 20-year-old male client had a diving accident with subsequent paraplegia. He says to the nurse, "No woman will ever want to marry me now."? Which of the following responses by the nurse is most therapeutic?

• A. "Don't worry. Maybe you'll meet a paraplegic woman."?
• B. "There is someone for everyone in this world."?
• C. "You are still an attractive man, even though you can't walk."?
• D. "Tell me more about your feelings on this issue."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is 'Tell me more about your feelings on this issue.' This answer is the most therapeutic as it encourages the client to express his emotions and concerns, fostering a supportive and open dialogue between the client and the nurse. Option A may come across as dismissive and does not directly address the client's emotional state. Option B, while positive, oversimplifies the client's complex feelings. Option C focuses only on physical appearance, missing the opportunity to delve deeper into the client's emotional well-being. Therefore, the most therapeutic response is to encourage further discussion about the client's feelings.

5. A client is having a seizure; his blood oxygen saturation drops from 92% to 82%. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Open the airway.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Suction the client.
• D. Check for breathing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is having a seizure and their blood oxygen saturation drops significantly, the priority action for the nurse is to open the airway. This allows for adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Administering oxygen can come after ensuring the airway is clear. Suctioning the client should be done if there is an airway obstruction, and checking for breathing is part of the assessment but opening the airway takes precedence to ensure proper oxygenation and ventilation during a critical event like a seizure.

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