Nursing Elites

1. All of the following interventions should be performed when fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress except:

• A. Increase maternal fluids.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Decrease maternal fluids.
• D. Turn the mother.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress, interventions are aimed at improving oxygenation to the fetus. Increasing maternal fluids helps improve placental perfusion and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Administering oxygen also aids in increasing oxygen supply to the fetus. Turning the mother can help relieve pressure on the vena cava, optimizing blood flow to the placenta. Therefore, decreasing maternal fluids would not be performed as it can further compromise placental perfusion and fetal oxygenation, making it the exception. Decreasing maternal fluids could potentially exacerbate fetal distress by reducing oxygen delivery and nutrient supply to the fetus, which is contrary to the goal of managing fetal distress.

2. Which of these would be an appropriate meal for a client with Celiac disease?

• A. egg noodles with cream sauce and broccoli, oat cookie, almond milk
• B. turkey sandwich with rye bread, carrots
• C. chicken and rice, apple, and tapioca pudding
• D. granola and dried apricots with cow's milk

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For individuals with Celiac disease, it's crucial to avoid gluten-containing foods. Choice C, which includes chicken, rice, apple, and tapioca pudding, is the most suitable option as all these foods are naturally gluten-free. Rice, fruits, vegetables, meat, dairy, and tapioca are all safe gluten-free options. Oats can be gluten-free if specially labeled, but many are processed on shared equipment with wheat. Granola often contains oats that may have been exposed to gluten. Dried and prepackaged fruits may contain gluten additives. Rye is a wheat derivative, and cream sauces usually contain flour as a base, making choices A and B inappropriate for individuals with Celiac disease.

3. How often should physical restraints be released?

• A. Every 2 hours
• B. Between 1 and 3 hours
• C. Every 30 minutes
• D. At least every 4 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to release physical restraints every 2 hours. Releasing restraints every 2 hours helps prevent complications associated with prolonged immobilization. Releasing restraints every 30 minutes (choice C) may be too frequent and disruptive to the client's care. Releasing restraints between 1 and 3 hours (choice B) introduces variability that could lead to inconsistencies in care. Releasing restraints at least every 4 hours (choice D) does not adhere to the recommended frequency of every 2 hours.

4. The client asks the nurse not to tell anyone outside of the care team about his positive HIV diagnosis. What response is most appropriate?

• A. "I have to inform all clients on the unit of your diagnosis as it is transmissible."?
• B. "I will not communicate your diagnosis to anyone without your permission."?
• C. "Because this is a communicable disease, it may need to be reported to the CDC."?
• D. "You should not be concerned with who I share your diagnosis with."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate response is C: "Because this is a communicable disease, it may need to be reported to the CDC."? It is important to uphold patient confidentiality, but in the case of certain communicable diseases like HIV, there are legal requirements for mandatory reporting to public health authorities such as the CDC. Option A is incorrect because it violates patient confidentiality and does not consider legal obligations. Option B, while respecting the client's wishes, may not align with the legal requirement for reporting certain communicable diseases. Option D is inappropriate as it dismisses the client's concerns and rights regarding their health information.

5. What is a common side effect of Rifampin concerning the client's contact lenses?

• A. The client's urine might turn blue.
• B. The client remains infectious to others for 48 hours.
• C. The client's contact lenses might be stained orange.
• D. The client's skin might take on a crimson glow.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client's contact lenses might be stained orange. Rifampin has the unusual effect of turning body fluids an orange color. Soft contact lenses might become permanently stained, making this an important side effect for the client to be aware of. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. There is no documented effect of Rifampin causing the client's urine to turn blue, the client remaining infectious for 48 hours, or the client's skin taking on a crimson glow.

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