when caring for a client with a possible diagnosis of placenta previa which of the following admission procedures should the nurse omit
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023

1. When caring for a client with a possible diagnosis of placenta previa, which of the following admission procedures should the nurse omit?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'enema.' Administering an enema to a client with placenta previa can dislodge the placenta, leading to an increased risk of bleeding and complications. It is crucial to avoid any interventions that may disrupt the placenta's positioning. Collecting urine and blood specimens are necessary for diagnostic purposes and monitoring, while a perineal shave is a routine procedure that does not pose a risk to the client with placenta previa.

2. Which of the following blood pressure parameters indicates PIH? Elevation over a baseline of:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 30 mmHg systolic and/or 15 mmHg diastolic. These parameters indicate mild PIH (pregnancy-induced hypertension). Mild preeclampsia is characterized by an increase in systolic blood pressure greater than 30 mmHg or an increase in diastolic blood pressure greater than 15 mmHg, observed on two readings taken 6 hours apart (or reaching 140/90). Choice B (40 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic) represents a more significant elevation and would indicate a more severe condition than mild PIH. Choices C (10 mmHg systolic and/or 5 mmHg diastolic) and D (20 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic) do not meet the criteria for indicating PIH as they are below the accepted parameters for mild PIH.

3. A client has been taking a drug (Drug A) that is highly metabolized by the cytochrome P-450 system. He has been on this medication for 6 months. At this time, he is started on a second medication (Drug B) that is an inducer of the cytochrome P-450 system. You should monitor this client for:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is taking a drug (Drug A) metabolized by the cytochrome P-450 system and is then started on another drug (Drug B) that induces this system, the metabolism of Drug A is increased. This results in decreased therapeutic effects of Drug A as it is broken down more rapidly. Monitoring is required to address potential reduced efficacy. The therapeutic effect of Drug A is diminished, not enhanced. Inducing the cytochrome P-450 system does not directly increase the adverse effects of Drug B. Although Drug B is an inducer, its therapeutic effects are not decreased as it is not metabolized faster.

4. After an escharotomy of the forearm, what is the priority nursing assessment for the client who has returned to your unit?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is "Tissue perfusion." After an escharotomy, the priority assessment is to ensure adequate tissue perfusion to the affected limb. Escharotomy is performed to relieve circulatory compromise by cutting through the eschar, so monitoring tissue perfusion is crucial to assess the effectiveness of the procedure and prevent complications. Assessing for infection is important but comes after ensuring adequate tissue perfusion. Checking the incision is necessary but assessing tissue perfusion takes precedence. Pain assessment is important but not the priority compared to assessing tissue perfusion to prevent ischemic complications.

5. A nurse is instructing a patient about the warning signs of Digitalis side effects. Which of the following side effects should the nurse tell the patient are sometimes associated with excessive levels of Digitalis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Muscle weakness.' Palpitations and muscle weakness are commonly associated with excessive levels of Digitalis. Seizures, depression, and anxiety are not typically linked to Digitalis toxicity. Seizures could be more related to other medications or conditions, while depression and anxiety are not commonly reported side effects of Digitalis.

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