Nursing Elites

1. Which sexually transmitted disease, sometimes referred to as the silent STD, is more common than gonorrhea and a leading cause of PID?

• A. Genital herpes.
• B. Trichomoniasis.
• C. Syphilis.
• D. Chlamydia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Chlamydia. Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that can often be asymptomatic, earning it the nickname 'silent STD.' It is more common than gonorrhea and is a leading cause of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID). Genital herpes (Choice A) is a viral infection, not a bacterial STD like chlamydia. Trichomoniasis (Choice B) is a parasitic infection and not commonly associated with causing PID. Syphilis (Choice C) is a bacterial infection but is not as common as chlamydia and is not a leading cause of PID.

2. A client is admitted to telemetry with a diagnosis of diabetes at 3pm. At 10pm, the client is unresponsive. BP is 98/64, Resp 38, HR 100, T 97. The nurse notes a fruity smell on the client's breath. The nurse recognizes that the client is in which acid-base imbalance?

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Based on the client's unresponsiveness, fruity breath smell, and the presence of diabetes, the nurse can infer that the client is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA is a complication of diabetes characterized by the accumulation of ketones in the body, leading to metabolic acidosis. The fruity breath smell is due to the presence of ketones. Therefore, the correct acid-base imbalance in this scenario is metabolic acidosis. Choice A, respiratory acidosis, is incorrect because the scenario does not provide evidence of primary respiratory dysfunction. Choice B, respiratory alkalosis, is incorrect as the client's condition does not align with the typical causes and symptoms of respiratory alkalosis. Choice D, metabolic alkalosis, is incorrect as the symptoms and history provided do not suggest a state of metabolic alkalosis.

3. A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:

• A. a maintenance dose.
• B. a loading dose.
• C. a medication with no first-pass effect.
• D. the medication to be given intravenously.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration, a loading or priming dose is ordered. This dose quickly establishes the desired drug level. It is calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose, like choice A, is used to maintain the therapeutic level after the loading dose. Waiting for steady state without a loading dose would take five drug half-lives. Choice C, a medication with no first-pass effect, does not directly address the need for rapid attainment of therapeutic levels. While intravenous administration (choice D) offers excellent bioavailability, a single dose by this route may not achieve the desired therapeutic plasma concentration as rapidly as a loading dose.

4. A young female teenager describes a brutal assault and rape to the nurse on duty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Check with the case manager on duty about possible police intervention.
• B. Provide an environment of concern and emotional stabilization.
• C. Clean the patient's wounds with normal saline and gauze.
• D. Refer the patient to a counselor specializing in trauma.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a patient describes a brutal assault and rape, the first priority should be to provide emotional support and create a safe and supportive environment. This helps the patient feel secure and cared for, which is crucial for their well-being at that moment. Checking with the case manager about police intervention should come after ensuring the patient's immediate emotional needs are addressed. Cleaning the patient's wounds, though important, can be secondary to providing emotional stabilization. Referring the patient to a counselor specializing in trauma is also crucial for long-term support, but the immediate focus should be on providing emotional support and stability.

5. Which of the following needs immediate medical attention and emergency intervention? The client who:

• A. complains of sharp pain upon taking a deep breath and excessive coughing.
• B. exhibits yellow, productive sputum, low-grade fever, and crackles.
• C. has a shift of the trachea to the left, with no breath sounds on the right.
• D. has asthma and complains of an inability to catch her breath after exercise.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is indicative of a tension pneumothorax, which is considered a medical emergency. The respiratory system is severely compromised, and venous return to the heart is affected. The mediastinal shift is to the unaffected side, indicating a critical situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration. This condition can rapidly progress to a life-threatening state, necessitating prompt medical attention. Choices A, B, and D do not present with life-threatening conditions requiring emergency intervention. Choice A mentions symptoms of pleurisy, which may be painful but not immediately life-threatening. Choice B describes symptoms of bronchitis, which may require medical attention but not of an emergent nature. Choice D reflects a common complaint in asthma but does not suggest an immediate life-threatening situation unless severe respiratory distress is present.

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