NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?
- A. Shock
- B. Nephrotoxic drugs
- C. Enlarged prostate
- D. Diabetes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most common cause of acute renal failure is shock. In cases of shock, such as hypovolemic shock where there is low blood volume, the kidneys receive inadequate blood flow leading to acute renal failure. This can result in the kidneys starting to die within 20 minutes of low pressure. While nephrotoxic drugs can also cause acute renal failure, shock is more commonly associated with this condition. An enlarged prostate can lead to urinary retention but is not the most common cause of acute renal failure. Diabetes, on the other hand, can cause chronic kidney disease over time but is not typically the primary cause of acute renal failure.
2. A 55-year-old female asks a nurse the following, “Which mineral/vitamin is the most important to prevent the progression of osteoporosis?†The nurse should state:
- A. Potassium
- B. Magnesium
- C. Calcium
- D. Vitamin B12
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Calcium. Calcium is essential for maintaining bone health and is crucial in preventing osteoporosis. Adequate calcium intake, along with vitamin D, is vital for bone strength. While other minerals and vitamins are also important for overall health, in the context of preventing osteoporosis, calcium plays a primary role. Potassium (Choice A), Magnesium (Choice B), and Vitamin B12 (Choice D) are important for various bodily functions but are not as directly linked to preventing osteoporosis as calcium.
3. What must the evening nurse do to facilitate the client's ECT treatment the next morning?
- A. Ensure the patient signs an informed consent form
- B. Administer evening medications
- C. Ensure the patient gets a good night's sleep
- D. Provide dietary restrictions as per ECT protocol
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) treatment, obtaining informed consent is crucial before the procedure. This ensures the patient is aware of the risks, benefits, and alternatives to the treatment. Administering medications, ensuring rest, and dietary restrictions are important but not directly related to the specific requirement of obtaining informed consent for ECT. The correct answer, ensuring the patient signs an informed consent form, is essential to uphold the patient's autonomy and ensure they have the necessary information to make an informed decision about their treatment.
4. Which behavior by a new nurse would indicate to the charge nurse that this nurse is following standard precautions?
- A. Wearing clean gloves while performing a heel stick on an infant
- B. Wearing the same gloves for assessments of clients in the same room
- C. Wearing sterile gloves when changing the urine bag and nasogastric canister of an infected client
- D. Donning a gown when responding to a request by the family to check the IV pump on a client with rotavirus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is wearing clean gloves while performing a heel stick on an infant. Standard precautions require the use of gloves when there is a risk of exposure to blood or body fluids. Clean gloves are suitable for this task as they provide adequate protection without being sterile. Choice B is incorrect because wearing the same gloves for different clients can lead to cross-contamination, violating standard precautions. Choice C is incorrect as sterile gloves are usually not required for changing a urine bag and nasogastric canister unless a specific aseptic technique is indicated; standard precautions do not demand sterile gloves for such tasks. Choice D is incorrect as donning a gown is not necessary for checking an IV pump unless there is a risk of exposure to bodily fluids that would necessitate full-body protection, which is not indicated in this scenario.
5. A month after receiving a blood transfusion, an immunocompromised client develops fever, liver abnormalities, a rash, and diarrhea. The nurse should suspect this client has:
- A. no relation to the blood transfusion.
- B. graft-versus-host disease (GVHD).
- C. myelosuppression.
- D. an allergic reaction to a recent medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of fever, liver abnormalities, rash, and diarrhea in an immunocompromised client a month after a blood transfusion are indicative of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD). GVHD occurs when white blood cells in donor blood attack the tissues of an immunocompromised recipient. This process can manifest within a month of the transfusion. While choices 1 and 4 are plausible, it is crucial for the nurse to consider the possibility of GVHD in immunocompromised transfusion recipients due to the significant risk. Myelosuppression, choice C, typically presents with decreased blood cell counts and is not consistent with the symptoms described. An allergic reaction to medication, choice D, would present with different manifestations such as itching, hives, or anaphylaxis, which are not described in the scenario.
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