Nursing Elites

1. A nurse gave medications to the wrong client. She stated the client responded to the name called. What is the nurse's appropriate documentation?

• A. Note in medication records the drug given
• B. The client was not hurt, no need for documentation
• C. Note the client's orientation
• D. Completely fill out an incident report

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the case where medications are given to the wrong client, the appropriate documentation by the nurse should involve completely filling out an incident report. This report is essential for tracking errors, implementing corrective measures, and ensuring patient safety. Choice A is incorrect because solely noting the drug given does not address the severity of the error. Choice B is incorrect because even if the client was not hurt, documentation is crucial for quality improvement and risk prevention. Choice C is incorrect as noting the client's orientation does not adequately address the medication error and its implications.

2. A nurse is caring for a patient in the step-down unit. The patient has signs of increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following is not a sign of increased intracranial pressure?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Increased pupil size bilaterally
• C. Change in LOC
• D. Vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased pupil size bilaterally.' When assessing for signs of increased intracranial pressure, bilateral pupil dilation is not typically associated with this condition. Instead, unilateral pupil changes, especially one pupil becoming dilated or non-reactive while the other remains normal, are indicative of increased ICP. Bradycardia, a change in level of consciousness (LOC), and vomiting are commonly seen in patients with increased intracranial pressure due to the brain's response to the rising pressure. Therefore, the presence of bilateral pupil dilation goes against the typical pattern observed in patients with increased intracranial pressure.

3. Which of the following is not typically considered one of the main mechanisms of Type II Diabetes treatment?

• A. Medications
• B. Nutrition
• C. Increased activity
• D. Continuous Insulin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Continuous Insulin is not typically considered one of the main mechanisms for treating Type II Diabetes. While medications, nutrition, and increased activity play crucial roles in managing Type II Diabetes, continuous insulin therapy is more common in Type I Diabetes or in specific cases of Type II Diabetes where other treatments are ineffective. Therefore, the correct answer is Continuous Insulin. Choices A, B, and C are mainstays in the treatment of Type II Diabetes, making them incorrect answers.

4. A 32-year-old male with a complaint of dizziness has an order for Morphine via IV. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check the patient's chest x-ray results.
• B. Retake vitals including blood pressure.
• C. Perform a neurological screening on the patient.
• D. Request the physician on-call to assess the patient.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to retake the patient's vitals, including blood pressure. Dizziness can be a sign of hypotension, which may be a contraindication for administering Morphine. Checking the chest x-ray results (Choice A) would not be the priority in this case as addressing the dizziness is more urgent. Performing a neurological screening (Choice C) may be important but not the first step when a patient presents with dizziness and an order for Morphine. Requesting the physician to assess the patient (Choice D) should come after the initial assessment and vitals retake.

5. A client has been receiving cyanocobalamin (B12) injections for the past 6 weeks. Which laboratory finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?

• A. Neutrophil count of 60%
• B. Basophil count of 0.5%
• C. Monocyte count of 2%
• D. Reticulocyte count of 1%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cyanocobalamin is a B12 medication used for pernicious anemia. A reticulocyte count of 1% indicates the desired effect of the medication, as reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that increase in response to B12 therapy, improving anemia. Neutrophils, basophils, and monocytes are white blood cells and are not directly influenced by B12 injections, making them incorrect choices.

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