Nursing Elites

1. The client in the Emergency Department, who has suffered an ankle sprain, should be taught to:

• A. use cold applications to the sprain during the first 24-48 hours.
• B. expect disability to decrease within the first 24 hours of injury
• C. expect pain to decrease within 3 hours after injury.
• D. begin progressive passive and active range of motion exercises immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client suffers an ankle sprain, the nurse should teach them to use cold applications to the sprain during the first 24-48 hours. Cold applications are believed to produce vasoconstriction and reduce the development of edema. Expecting disability to decrease within the first 24 hours of injury (choice B) is incorrect as disability and pain are anticipated to increase during the first 2-3 hours after injury. Expecting pain to decrease within 3 hours after injury (choice C) is also incorrect as pain and swelling usually increase initially. Beginning progressive passive and active range of motion exercises immediately (choice D) is not recommended; these exercises are usually started 2-5 days after the injury, according to the physician's recommendation. Treatment for a sprain involves support, rest, and alternating cold and heat applications. X-ray pictures are often necessary to rule out any fractures.

2. One week ago, a client was involved in a motor vehicle crash (MVC) and was brought to the Emergency Department (ED). In the emergency department, the client received two stitches to the forehead and was sent home. Today, the client's spouse notes that the client 'acts like he is drunk' and cannot control his right foot and arm. The nurse will suspect?

• A. Meningitis
• B. Absence seizure
• C. Subdural hematoma
• D. Meniere's disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Yes! The nurse will suspect a subdural hematoma. In this case, the client's presentation of acting intoxicated and experiencing loss of motor control in the right foot and arm is indicative of an acute subdural hematoma. This condition can occur after a head injury with a slow venous bleed, where symptoms may not show until compensation mechanisms are overwhelmed. Meningitis (choice A) usually presents with fever, headache, and neck stiffness. Absence seizure (choice B) is characterized by brief periods of unconsciousness without convulsions. Meniere's disease (choice D) manifests with symptoms like vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus, which do not match the client's current symptoms.

3. While Fluorouracil (5FU®) is being infused, a client complains of burning at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Aspirate the IV site for blood return.
• B. Slow the infusion.
• C. Inspect the IV site.
• D. Stop the infusion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse is to inspect the IV site. This is important to assess for any signs of infiltration or extravasation, which could be causing the burning sensation. Aspirating the IV site for blood return (Choice A) may not be the initial priority as it does not directly address the client's complaint of burning. Slowing the infusion (Choice B) may help alleviate discomfort but should not be done before inspecting the site. Stopping the infusion (Choice D) may be necessary, but inspecting the site should come first to determine the appropriate course of action.

4. Which task would be appropriate for the LPN to perform?

• A. Changing a colostomy bag.
• B. Hanging a new bag of TPN.
• C. Drawing a peak antibiotic blood level from a central line.
• D. Administering IV pain medication to a two-day post-op client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is changing a colostomy bag. This task falls within the LPN's scope of practice. LPNs are trained to provide basic nursing care, including assisting with activities of daily living and certain medical procedures like changing ostomy bags. Hanging a new bag of TPN and drawing a peak antibiotic blood level from a central line are tasks that require a higher level of training and are typically performed by RNs due to their complexity and potential risks. Administering IV pain medication to a two-day post-op client is usually the responsibility of an RN as it involves close monitoring, assessment of the client's condition, and the administration of potent medications that require a higher level of clinical judgment and expertise.

5. Laboratory tests reveal the following electrolyte values for Mr. Smith: Na 135 mEq/L, Ca 8.5 mg/dL, Cl 102 mEq/L, and K 2.0 mEq/L. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the physician because of its potential risk to the client?

• A. Ca
• B. K
• C. Na
• D. Cl

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'K.' Normal serum potassium levels range between 3.5 and 5.5 mEq/L. Mr. Smith's potassium level of 2.0 mEq/L is significantly below the normal range, indicating hypokalemia, which can lead to serious risks such as cardiac arrhythmias. The levels of sodium (Na), calcium (Ca), and chloride (Cl) are within normal ranges, so they do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Therefore, the nurse should report the low potassium level to the physician for prompt intervention.

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