Nursing Elites

1. Jane Love, a 35-year-old gravida III para II at 23 weeks gestation, is seen in the Emergency Department with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Jane reports that she has been feeling tired and has noticed ankle swelling in the evening. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 11.5 g/dL. After evaluating the situation, the nurse determines that Jane is at risk for placenta previa, based on which of the following data?

• A. anemia
• B. edema
• C. painless vaginal bleeding
• D. fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placenta previa is a disorder where the placenta implants in the lower uterine segment, causing painless bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy. The bleeding results from tearing of the placental villi from the uterine wall as the lower uterine segment contracts and dilates. It can be slight or profuse and can include bright red, painless bleeding. While anemia (choice A) may be a consequence of chronic bleeding from placenta previa, it is not a direct indicator. Edema (choice B) and fatigue (choice D) are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in pregnancy but are not specific to placenta previa.

2. The client is preparing to undergo a total hysterectomy for advanced cervical cancer. The client is crying and says that she wants to have more children and is unsure if she should have the procedure. What should the nurse do?

• A. Allow the client to honestly discuss her fears and encourage her to talk more with her physician.
• B. Tell her the good things that she will be able to do without more children and encourage her to make a list of positive things.
• C. Explain to the client that her ovaries can be frozen for egg harvesting at a later time and she can find a surrogate.
• D. Advise the client to put off having the surgery until she is sure that she wants to undergo the procedure and notify the surgeon of the decision.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate action for the nurse is to allow the client to express her fears and concerns openly. By encouraging her to talk more with her physician, the nurse is promoting effective communication and ensuring that the client receives adequate information to make an informed decision. Option A is correct because it acknowledges the client's emotions and empowers her to seek clarification and support from her healthcare provider. Options B and C do not address the client's emotional needs or provide a solution to her concerns regarding fertility. Option D is not appropriate as it does not prioritize the client's emotional well-being and delays necessary medical treatment for advanced cervical cancer.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with decreased cardiac output secondary to heart failure with fluid volume overload. The effects of diminished renal perfusion will have which physiologic response?

• A. Diuresis
• B. Increased fluid retention
• C. Elevated bicarbonate level
• D. Paroxysmal idiopathic narcosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When there is diminished renal perfusion due to decreased cardiac output, the kidneys receive less blood flow. This leads to a decrease in urine output and an increase in fluid retention, as the kidneys are not able to effectively filter and excrete excess fluid. Elevated bicarbonate level and paroxysmal idiopathic narcosis are not typically associated with diminished renal perfusion in heart failure. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Increased fluid retention.'

4. Which of the following medications is not classified as a neuromuscular blocker?

• A. Anectine
• B. Pavulon
• C. Pitressin
• D. Mivacron

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Pitressin. Pitressin is a hormone replacement medication and is not classified as a neuromuscular blocker. Choices A, B, and D (Anectine, Pavulon, Mivacron) are neuromuscular blockers used during anesthesia to induce muscle relaxation for various procedures. Anectine is also known as succinylcholine, Pavulon is rocuronium, and Mivacron is mivacurium. These medications act on the neuromuscular junction to block the transmission of nerve impulses, leading to muscle relaxation.

5. Which intervention should the nurse stop the nursing assistant from performing?

• A. Emptying the Jackson-Pratt drainage of the client post cholecystectomy
• B. Performing passive range of motion on the client with right-sided paralysis
• C. Placing the traction weights on the bed to transfer the client to X-ray
• D. Discarding the first urine voided by the client starting a 24-hour urine test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing traction weights on the bed to transfer the client to X-ray is an intervention that the nurse should stop the nursing assistant from performing. Traction should never be relieved without a doctor's order as it can result in muscle spasm and tissue damage. The other choices are appropriate nursing interventions and should not be stopped. Emptying the Jackson-Pratt drainage, performing passive range of motion, and collecting the first urine void for a 24-hour urine test are all within the scope of practice and do not pose immediate risks to the client's well-being.

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