NCLEX-PN
Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions
1. What is the profile of an individual who engages in domestic violence?
- A. from a minority culture in a low-income group.
- B. from a majority culture in a middle-income group.
- C. one who was never allowed to compete as a child.
- D. from any walk of life, race, income group, or profession.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Individuals who engage in domestic violence come from various backgrounds and cannot be stereotyped based on demographic factors like culture, income, or race. Research shows that perpetrators of domestic abuse can be found in any walk of life, regardless of their race, income group, or profession. It is important to note that the majority of domestic violence cases involve male perpetrators and female victims, but the profile of the abuser is not limited to specific demographic features. Therefore, the correct answer is that individuals who engage in domestic violence can come from any walk of life, race, income group, or profession. Choices A and B are incorrect as they wrongly associate domestic violence with specific cultural or income groups. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence to support the claim that being disallowed to compete as a child leads to domestic violence.
2. The child with seizure disorder is being treated with Dilantin (phenytoin). Which of the following statements by the patient's mother indicates to the nurse that the patient is experiencing a side effect of Dilantin therapy?
- A. "She is very irritable lately."?
- B. "She sleeps quite a bit of the time."?
- C. "Her gums look too big for her teeth."?
- D. "She has gained about 10 pounds in the last 6 months."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is '"Her gums look too big for her teeth."?' Hyperplasia of the gums is a known side effect associated with Dilantin therapy. Option A, '"She is very irritable lately,"?' is not a typical side effect of Dilantin. Option B, '"She sleeps quite a bit of the time,"?' is a common side effect of Dilantin but not specific to gum hyperplasia. Option D, '"She has gained about 10 pounds in the last 6 months,"?' is not typically associated with Dilantin therapy and is unrelated to the question.
3. A primary belief of psychiatric mental health nursing is:
- A. Most people have the potential to change and grow.
- B. Every person is worthy of dignity and respect.
- C. Human needs are individual to each person.
- D. Some behaviors have no meaning and cannot be understood.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that every person is worthy of dignity and respect. This is a fundamental principle in psychiatric mental health nursing, emphasizing the importance of treating individuals with dignity and respect regardless of their condition. This belief forms the basis of establishing a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Choice A is a positive belief, but the primary focus in psychiatric mental health nursing is on respecting the worth and dignity of each individual. Choice C is related to understanding individual human needs but does not encompass the core value of dignity and respect. Choice D is incorrect as psychiatric nursing emphasizes the importance of interpreting and understanding all behaviors as meaningful expressions of the client's experience.
4. Which client can best be assigned to the newly licensed practical nurse?
- A. The client receiving chemotherapy
- B. The client post-coronary bypass
- C. The client with a TURP
- D. The client with diverticulitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best client to assign to the newly licensed nurse is the most stable client. In this case, the client with diverticulitis is the most stable among the options provided. Clients receiving chemotherapy and those post-coronary bypass require specialized care and attention, making them unsuitable for a newly licensed nurse. The client with a TURP may be at risk of bleeding, needing a nurse experienced in managing such complications. Therefore, the client with diverticulitis is the most appropriate choice for the newly licensed practical nurse.
5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan).
- B. labetalol (Normodyne).
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
- D. thiothixene (Navane).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.
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