Nursing Elites

1. A woman asks, "How much alcohol can I safely drink while pregnant?"? The nurse's best response is:

• A. "The amount of alcohol that is safe during pregnancy is unknown."?
• B. "Consuming one or two beers or glasses of wine a day is considered safe for a healthy pregnant woman."?
• C. "Drinking three or more drinks on any given occasion is the only harmful type of drinking during pregnancy."?
• D. "You can have a drink to help you relax and get to sleep at night."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, "The amount of alcohol that is safe during pregnancy is unknown."? This response is appropriate because there is no known safe amount of alcohol consumption during pregnancy. Consuming any amount of alcohol during pregnancy can pose risks to the developing fetus, leading to conditions like fetal alcohol syndrome, which is a combination of mental and physical abnormalities in infants. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B suggests that consuming one or two drinks a day is safe during pregnancy, which is not supported by current medical guidelines. Choice C incorrectly states that only drinking three or more drinks on any given occasion is harmful, when in reality, any amount of alcohol can be harmful to the fetus. Choice D is inappropriate as it suggests that having a drink to relax and sleep is acceptable during pregnancy, which is not the case.

2. An elderly client is diagnosed with ovarian cancer. She has surgery followed by chemotherapy with fluorouracil (Adrucil) IV. What should the nurse do if she notices crystals and cloudiness in the IV medication?

• A. Discard the solution and order a new bag
• B. Warm the solution
• C. Continue the infusion and document the finding
• D. Discontinue the medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Crystals in the solution are not normal and should not be administered to the client. Discarding the solution and ordering a new bag is the correct action to ensure the client's safety. Warming the solution, as suggested in answer B, will not resolve the issue of crystals and cloudiness, which could potentially harm the client. Continuing the infusion, as in answer C, could pose a risk to the client due to the presence of abnormal substances. Answer D, discontinuing the medication, would typically require a doctor's order and should be done after discarding the contaminated solution.

3. The client is being assessed for possible pernicious anemia. Which finding would support this diagnosis?

• A. A weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks
• B. Complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities
• C. A red, beefy tongue
• D. A hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a red, beefy tongue, which is characteristic of pernicious anemia due to the atrophy of the papillae on the tongue. This finding is known as glossitis. A red, beefy tongue is a classic sign of pernicious anemia. Choice A, weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks, is non-specific and not a typical finding in pernicious anemia. Choice B, complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities, are more indicative of peripheral neuropathy, a common symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency, which can be seen in pernicious anemia. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL, falls within the normal range and does not specifically point towards pernicious anemia, which is characterized by low hemoglobin levels due to impaired absorption of vitamin B12.

4. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?

• A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
• B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
• C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
• D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.

5. The client is scheduled for a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis. Which medication should be kept available during the test?

• A. Atropine sulfate
• B. Furosemide
• C. Prostigmin
• D. Promethazine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis, Atropine sulfate should be kept available as it is the antidote for Tensilon and is administered to manage cholinergic crises that may occur during the test. Atropine sulfate helps counteract the excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system caused by Tensilon. Furosemide (choice B) is a diuretic and not related to managing Tensilon-induced crises. Prostigmin (choice C) is used to treat Myasthenia Gravis itself, not for managing the effects of Tensilon. Promethazine (choice D) is an antiemetic and antianxiety agent, which is not necessary for a Tensilon test. Therefore, Atropine sulfate (choice A) is the correct medication to have available during a Tensilon test, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this context.

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