NCLEX-PN
Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions
1. The nurse is caring for a client who is dying. While assessing the client for signs of impending death, the nurse observes the client for:
- A. elevated blood pressure.
- B. Cheyne-Stokes respiration.
- C. elevated pulse rate.
- D. decreased temperature.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are a pattern of breathing characterized by rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep to very shallow breathing with periods of temporary apnea. This pattern is often associated with conditions like cardiac failure and can be a sign of impending death. Elevated blood pressure and pulse rate are not typically associated with the dying process. Decreased temperature is also not a common sign of impending death. Therefore, option B, Cheyne-Stokes respiration, is the correct choice when assessing a client for signs of impending death.
2. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan)
- B. labetalol (Normodyne)
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
- D. thiothixene (Navane)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.
3. A home health nurse is making preparations for morning visits. Which one of the following clients should the nurse visit first?
- A. A client with brain attack (stroke) receiving tube feedings
- B. A client with congestive heart failure complaining of nighttime dyspnea
- C. A client who had a thoracotomy 6 months ago
- D. A client with Parkinson’s disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with congestive heart failure complaining of nighttime dyspnea should be seen first as airway management is a priority in nursing care. This client's symptoms indicate potential respiratory distress, requiring immediate attention. Choices A, C, and D involve clients who are more stable and do not present with urgent or acute conditions that require immediate intervention. Choice A with a client receiving tube feedings for a stroke may require attention, but the urgency of addressing potential respiratory distress in choice B takes precedence. Choice C, a client who had a thoracotomy 6 months ago, unless presenting with acute distress, does not necessitate immediate attention. Choice D, a client with Parkinson's disease, is usually a chronic condition that does not typically require immediate intervention for the described scenario.
4. Social support systems include all of the following except:
- A. call-in help lines
- B. emotional assistance provided by others
- C. community support groups
- D. use of coping skills and verbalization for anger management
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the use of coping skills and verbalization for anger management. Social support systems involve external sources of support from others or the community. Call-in help lines, emotional assistance provided by others, and community support groups all represent social support systems where individuals can seek help and assistance from outside sources. On the other hand, the use of coping skills and verbalization for anger management refers to individual strategies rather than external social support.
5. The client is being assessed for possible pernicious anemia. Which finding would support this diagnosis?
- A. A weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks
- B. Complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities
- C. A red, beefy tongue
- D. A hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a red, beefy tongue, which is characteristic of pernicious anemia due to the atrophy of the papillae on the tongue. This finding is known as glossitis. A red, beefy tongue is a classic sign of pernicious anemia. Choice A, weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks, is non-specific and not a typical finding in pernicious anemia. Choice B, complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities, are more indicative of peripheral neuropathy, a common symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency, which can be seen in pernicious anemia. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL, falls within the normal range and does not specifically point towards pernicious anemia, which is characterized by low hemoglobin levels due to impaired absorption of vitamin B12.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access