Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who is dying. While assessing the client for signs of impending death, the nurse observes the client for:

• A. elevated blood pressure.
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respiration.
• C. elevated pulse rate.
• D. decreased temperature.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are a pattern of breathing characterized by rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep to very shallow breathing with periods of temporary apnea. This pattern is often associated with conditions like cardiac failure and can be a sign of impending death. Elevated blood pressure and pulse rate are not typically associated with the dying process. Decreased temperature is also not a common sign of impending death. Therefore, option B, Cheyne-Stokes respiration, is the correct choice when assessing a client for signs of impending death.

2. While walking in the hallway of an acute care unit of the hospital, the nurse overhears the change of shift report. What should the nurse do?

• A. Make the charge nurse on the unit aware of the situation so that they can take the necessary steps to maintain the confidentiality of the information being reported.
• B. Disregard the information because it changes quickly on the acute care unit and is outdated within 2-3 hours anyway.
• C. Return to their own unit and not disclose that confidential information has been overheard.
• D. Ignore the situation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To protect the confidentiality of the information being reported, the nurse should make the charge nurse on the unit aware of the situation. This allows the charge nurse to take necessary steps to maintain confidentiality and ensure that the information is communicated in an appropriate and private manner. Disclosing the situation to the charge nurse is essential to address any breaches in confidentiality and uphold professional standards of privacy and ethics. Disregarding the information, returning to their own unit without disclosure, or ignoring the situation altogether would not address the breach of confidentiality and could lead to further issues regarding patient privacy and trust.

3. The client is scheduled for a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis. Which medication should be kept available during the test?

• A. Atropine sulfate
• B. Furosemide
• C. Prostigmin
• D. Promethazine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis, Atropine sulfate should be kept available as it is the antidote for Tensilon and is administered to manage cholinergic crises that may occur during the test. Atropine sulfate helps counteract the excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system caused by Tensilon. Furosemide (choice B) is a diuretic and not related to managing Tensilon-induced crises. Prostigmin (choice C) is used to treat Myasthenia Gravis itself, not for managing the effects of Tensilon. Promethazine (choice D) is an antiemetic and antianxiety agent, which is not necessary for a Tensilon test. Therefore, Atropine sulfate (choice A) is the correct medication to have available during a Tensilon test, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this context.

4. A complication of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is the development of cholestasis. What is this condition?

• A. an inflammatory process of the extrahepatic bile ducts
• B. an arrest of the normal flow of bile
• C. an inflammation of the gallbladder
• D. the formation of gallstones

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cholestasis due to TPN administration is an intrahepatic process that interrupts the normal flow of bile. It is characterized by a reduction or stoppage of bile flow. Choice A, an inflammatory process of the extrahepatic bile ducts, refers to cholangitis, not cholestasis. Choice C, an inflammation of the gallbladder, describes cholecystitis, a different condition. Choice D, the formation of gallstones, is not correct as cholestasis is about the flow of bile, not the formation of gallstones.

5. Which information obtained from the mother of a child with cerebral palsy most likely correlates to the diagnosis?

• A. She was born at 42 weeks gestation.
• B. She had meningitis when she was 6 months old.
• C. She had physiologic jaundice after delivery.
• D. She has frequent sore throats.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The diagnosis of meningitis at age 6 months correlates to a diagnosis of cerebral palsy. Cerebral palsy, a neurological disorder, is often associated with birth trauma or infections of the brain or spinal column. Answers A, C, and D are not related to the question. Gestational length (choice A) is not a direct risk factor for cerebral palsy. Physiologic jaundice (choice C) and frequent sore throats (choice D) are not typically associated with cerebral palsy.

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