NCLEX-PN
Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions
1. The nurse is caring for a client who is dying. While assessing the client for signs of impending death, the nurse observes the client for:
- A. elevated blood pressure.
- B. Cheyne-Stokes respiration.
- C. elevated pulse rate.
- D. decreased temperature.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are a pattern of breathing characterized by rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep to very shallow breathing with periods of temporary apnea. This pattern is often associated with conditions like cardiac failure and can be a sign of impending death. Elevated blood pressure and pulse rate are not typically associated with the dying process. Decreased temperature is also not a common sign of impending death. Therefore, option B, Cheyne-Stokes respiration, is the correct choice when assessing a client for signs of impending death.
2. The client is being assessed for possible pernicious anemia. Which finding would support this diagnosis?
- A. A weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks
- B. Complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities
- C. A red, beefy tongue
- D. A hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a red, beefy tongue, which is characteristic of pernicious anemia due to the atrophy of the papillae on the tongue. This finding is known as glossitis. A red, beefy tongue is a classic sign of pernicious anemia. Choice A, weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks, is non-specific and not a typical finding in pernicious anemia. Choice B, complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities, are more indicative of peripheral neuropathy, a common symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency, which can be seen in pernicious anemia. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL, falls within the normal range and does not specifically point towards pernicious anemia, which is characterized by low hemoglobin levels due to impaired absorption of vitamin B12.
3. In the United States, several definitions of death are currently being used. The definition that uses apnea testing and pupillary responses to light is termed:
- A. whole brain death.
- B. heart-lung death.
- C. circulatory death.
- D. higher brain death.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'whole brain death.' Most protocols for determining whole brain death require two separate clinical examinations, including the induction of painful stimuli, pupillary responses to light, oculovestibular testing, and apnea testing. This comprehensive approach ensures that all functions of the brain, including the brainstem, are evaluated to confirm the absence of brain function. Choices B and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the specific tests required for determining whole brain death. Choice C, 'circulatory death,' does not involve the evaluation of brain function and is not a current definition of death in the United States.
4. The women's health charge nurse is making assignments for the next shift. The unit is short one staff member and will receive a nurse from the medical-surgical unit. Which group of clients should she assign to the medical-surgical nurse?
- A. Total abdominal hysterectomy, bladder suspension with A&P repair, client with breast reduction
- B. C-section planning discharge, post-partum infection, mastectomy
- C. Vaginal delivery of fetal demise, C-section with pneumonia, 32-week gestation with lymphoma
- D. 28-week gestation of bed rest, post-partum with HELLP syndrome, breast reconstruction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer includes clients who have undergone surgical procedures typically managed on a medical-surgical unit. Choice A consists of clients who have had elective surgical procedures such as hysterectomy, bladder suspension with A&P repair, and breast reduction, which are commonly treated in a medical-surgical setting. Choices B, C, and D involve clients with various complications related to childbirth, fetal demise, pneumonia, gestational lymphoma, HELLP syndrome, and bed rest, which are more complex cases requiring specialized care beyond medical-surgical nursing.
5. A 20-year-old female has a prescription for tetracycline. While teaching the client how to take her medicine, the nurse learns that the client is also taking Ortho-Novum oral contraceptive pills. Which instructions should be included in the teaching plan?
- A. The oral contraceptives will decrease the effectiveness of the tetracycline.
- B. Nausea often results from taking oral contraceptives and antibiotics.
- C. Toxicity can result when taking these two medications together.
- D. Antibiotics can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so the client should use an alternate method of birth control.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When antibiotics and oral contraceptives are taken together, the effectiveness of the oral contraceptives can be reduced, increasing the risk of pregnancy. Therefore, it is important to advise the client to use an alternate method of birth control to prevent unintended pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no evidence to suggest that oral contraceptives decrease the effectiveness of tetracycline, cause nausea, or result in toxicity when taken with antibiotics.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access