NCLEX-PN
Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions
1. The nurse is caring for a client who is dying. While assessing the client for signs of impending death, the nurse observes the client for:
- A. elevated blood pressure.
- B. Cheyne-Stokes respiration.
- C. elevated pulse rate.
- D. decreased temperature.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are a pattern of breathing characterized by rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep to very shallow breathing with periods of temporary apnea. This pattern is often associated with conditions like cardiac failure and can be a sign of impending death. Elevated blood pressure and pulse rate are not typically associated with the dying process. Decreased temperature is also not a common sign of impending death. Therefore, option B, Cheyne-Stokes respiration, is the correct choice when assessing a client for signs of impending death.
2. Which of the following describes the stages of domestic violence in an intimate relationship?
- A. happiness, crisis, angry outburst, intervention
- B. honeymoon period, escalation of stress, outburst, reconciliation
- C. acting out and making up
- D. peace and calm, angry outburst, peace and calm, denial
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'honeymoon period, escalation of stress, outburst, reconciliation.' A pattern of behavior known as the cycle of abuse involves these stages. It starts with a honeymoon phase, followed by a buildup of stress, an outburst which may involve violence, and then reconciliation. This cycle is commonly observed in domestic violence situations. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately represent the stages of domestic violence in intimate relationships. Choice A mixes positive and negative elements, while choice C simplifies the complex dynamics of domestic violence. Choice D repeats 'peace and calm' inappropriately and includes 'denial,' which is not typically a stage in the cycle of abuse.
3. A client with acute leukemia develops a low white blood cell count. In addition to the institution of isolation, the nurse should:
- A. Request that foods be provided in sealed single-serving packages
- B. Ask the client to wear a mask when visitors are present
- C. Prep IV sites with mild soap and water and alcohol
- D. Provide foods in sealed single-serving packages
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For a client with acute leukemia and a low white blood cell count, preventing exposure to food contaminants is crucial due to immune suppression. Providing foods in sealed single-serving packages helps reduce the risk of contamination. Choice B is incorrect as it introduces the potential of infection from visitors. Choice A, suggesting disposable utensils, is not as effective as sealed containers in preventing food contamination. Choice C, using alcohol for prepping IV sites, is less suitable due to its drying effect and potential for skin breakdown, making sealed packages a better option for food safety.
4. Which client can best be assigned to the newly licensed practical nurse?
- A. The client receiving chemotherapy
- B. The client post-coronary bypass
- C. The client with a TURP
- D. The client with diverticulitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best client to assign to the newly licensed nurse is the most stable client. In this case, the client with diverticulitis is the most stable among the options provided. Clients receiving chemotherapy and those post-coronary bypass require specialized care and attention, making them unsuitable for a newly licensed nurse. The client with a TURP may be at risk of bleeding, needing a nurse experienced in managing such complications. Therefore, the client with diverticulitis is the most appropriate choice for the newly licensed practical nurse.
5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan).
- B. labetalol (Normodyne).
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
- D. thiothixene (Navane).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access