a chemical reaction between drugs prior to their administration or absorption is known as
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN 2023 Quizlet

1. What is a chemical reaction between drugs before their administration or absorption known as?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A chemical reaction between drugs before their administration or absorption is termed a drug incompatibility. This phenomenon commonly happens when drug solutions are mixed before intravenous administration, but it can also occur with orally administered drugs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because side effects, adverse events, and allergic responses occur after the administration and absorption of drugs, not prior to it.

2. High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'rapid cell catabolism.' During chemotherapy, rapid cell destruction occurs, leading to an increase in uric acid levels as a byproduct of cell breakdown. High uric acid levels are primarily a result of the rapid breakdown of cells during chemotherapy, not due to the kidneys' inability to excrete drug metabolites (Choice A). The prophylactic antibiotics given concurrently do not directly cause high uric acid levels (Choice C). The altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs (Choice D) is not a direct cause of elevated uric acid levels; the main mechanism is the rapid cell catabolism that occurs during chemotherapy.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's medical record. The record indicates the patient has limited shoulder flexion on the left. Which plane of movement is limited?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Sagittal.' The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves, and movements in this plane involve flexion and extension. In this case, limited shoulder flexion on the left indicates a restriction in the forward and backward movement of the arm, which occurs in the sagittal plane. Choice A, 'Horizontal,' is incorrect as it refers to movements parallel to the ground. Choice C, 'Frontal,' is incorrect as it involves side-to-side movements. Choice D, 'Vertical,' is incorrect as it typically refers to up and down movements.

4. The client has just returned from electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) and is very drowsy. What is the position of choice until the client regains full consciousness?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lateral.' When a client is very drowsy or sedated, placing them in the lateral position is important to maintain an open airway and allow for drainage of secretions. This position helps prevent airway obstruction and aspiration. Choice A, 'Supine,' is lying flat on the back and may not be ideal for a drowsy client due to the risk of airway compromise. Choice B, 'Fowlers,' is a semi-sitting position that is beneficial for clients with respiratory distress, but it may not be the best choice for a very drowsy individual. Choice D, 'High Fowlers,' is a more upright sitting position, which again may not be suitable for a drowsy client as it does not facilitate airway patency as effectively as the lateral position.

5. For a client with suspected appendicitis, where should the nurse expect to find abdominal tenderness?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: lower right. Abdominal tenderness in the lower-right quadrant is a classic symptom of appendicitis. This tenderness is known as McBurney's point, which is located in the lower-right quadrant of the abdomen. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the tenderness associated with appendicitis is typically localized to the lower-right quadrant.

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