Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assigned to do pre-operative teaching on a blind patient who is scheduled for surgery the following morning. What teaching strategy would best fit the situation?

• A. Verbal teaching in short sessions throughout the day
• B. Provide a pre-operative booklet in Braille
• C. Provide an audio recording for the client
• D. Have the blind patient's family member assist with the instruction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a blind patient scheduled for surgery the following morning, the best teaching strategy would be verbal teaching in short sessions throughout the day. Providing information in smaller amounts makes it easier to retain, and one-on-one teaching is most effective. Choice B, providing a pre-operative booklet in Braille, may not be as practical for last-minute teaching. Choice C, providing an audio recording, may not allow for immediate interaction and clarification. Choice D, having a family member instruct the patient, may not ensure the accuracy and clarity of the information provided.

2. A client receives a cervical intracavity radium implant as part of her therapy. A common side effect of a cervical implant is:

• A. creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.
• B. stomatitis.
• C. constipation.
• D. xerostomia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.' This side effect persists for 1 to 2 months after the removal of a cervical implant. Diarrhea, not constipation, is usually a side effect of cervical implants. Stomatitis and xerostomia are local side effects of radiation to the mouth, not associated with cervical implants. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

3. A client goes to the Emergency Department with acute respiratory distress and the following arterial blood gases (ABGs): pH 7.35, PCO2 40 mmHg, PO2 63 mmHg, HCO3 23, and oxygenation saturation (SaO2) 93%. Which of the following represents the best analysis of the etiology of these ABGs?

• A. tuberculosis (TB)
• B. pneumonia
• C. pleural effusion
• D. hypoxia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A combined low PO2 and low SaO2 indicate hypoxia. The pH, PCO2, and HCO3 are normal. ABGs are not necessarily altered in TB or pleural effusion. In pneumonia, the PO2 and PCO2 might be low due to hypoxia stimulating hyperventilation, but the given ABG values specifically point to hypoxia as the primary issue.

4. High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by

• A. the kidneys' inability to excrete the drug metabolites.
• B. rapid cell catabolism.
• C. toxic effects of the prophylactic antibiotics given concurrently.
• D. the altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'rapid cell catabolism.' Chemotherapy leads to the destruction of cells, resulting in increased uric acid levels due to cell breakdown. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is not with the kidneys' ability to excrete the drug metabolites but rather with the cell breakdown. Choice C is incorrect as the question focuses on chemotherapy and its effects, not prophylactic antibiotics. Choice D is incorrect as the question pertains to the development of high uric acid levels, not altered blood pH from acidic drugs.

5. Which factor in a client’s health history increases their risk for cancer?

• A. Family history and environment
• B. Alcohol and smoking
• C. Alcohol consumption and smoking
• D. Proximity to an electric plant and water source

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Alcohol and smoking.' Both alcohol consumption and smoking are well-known risk factors for various types of cancer. They have a synergistic effect, meaning their combined impact raises the risk significantly. Family history and environment (Choice A) may play a role in certain cancers, but alcohol and smoking are more directly linked to increased cancer risk. Proximity to an electric plant and water source (Choice D) is not typically associated with an increased risk of cancer compared to alcohol and smoking.

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