a nurse is assigned to do pre operative teaching on a blind patient who is scheduled for surgery the following morning what teaching strategy would be

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Exam Cram

1. A nurse is assigned to do pre-operative teaching on a blind patient who is scheduled for surgery the following morning. What teaching strategy would best fit the situation?

A. Verbal teaching in short sessions throughout the day
B. Provide a pre-operative booklet in Braille
C. Provide an audio recording for the client
D. Have the blind patient's family member assist with the instruction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a blind patient scheduled for surgery the following morning, the best teaching strategy would be verbal teaching in short sessions throughout the day. Providing information in smaller amounts makes it easier to retain, and one-on-one teaching is most effective. Choice B, providing a pre-operative booklet in Braille, may not be as practical for last-minute teaching. Choice C, providing an audio recording, may not allow for immediate interaction and clarification. Choice D, having a family member instruct the patient, may not ensure the accuracy and clarity of the information provided.

2. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk for suicide?

A. 76-year-old widow with chronic renal failure
B. 19-year-old with new SSRI therapy
C. 28-year-old post-partum crying weekly
D. 50-year-old client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and depression

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 76-year-old widow with chronic renal failure. Elderly individuals with chronic diseases, especially men, are at very high risk for suicide. The other choices, although they may be vulnerable populations, do not carry as high a risk for suicide. The 19-year-old with new SSRI therapy may actually have a lower risk as they are receiving treatment. The 28-year-old post-partum individual is experiencing a common emotional response after childbirth, which is not necessarily indicative of a high suicide risk. The 50-year-old with OCD and depression is at risk but not as high as elderly individuals with chronic illness.

3. Is head lag expected to be resolved by 4 months of age? Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate?

A. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension.
B. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation, and stomach cramps.
C. Drowsiness, lethargy, and fatigue.
D. Neuropathy and tingling in the extremities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Head lag is a developmental milestone that should be resolved by 4 months of age. Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate potential developmental delays or muscle weakness. The correct answer, 'Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation, and stomach cramps,' reflects symptoms that could be associated with developmental delays or underlying health conditions. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension (Choice A) are unlikely to be directly related to head lag. Choices C and D present symptoms that are unrelated to the issue of continued head lag at 6 months of age.

4. After applying oxygen using bi-nasal prongs to a client who is having chest pain, the nurse should implement which intervention?

A. Have the client take slow deep breaths in through their mouth and out through their nose.
B. Post signs indicating that oxygen is in use on the client's door and in their room
C. Apply Vaseline petroleum to both nares and 2 by 2 gauze around the oxygen tubing at the client's ears
D. Encourage the client to hyperextend the neck, take a few deep breaths and cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After applying oxygen using bi-nasal prongs to a client with chest pain, it is essential for the nurse to post signs indicating that oxygen is in use on the client's door and in their room. This safety precaution alerts healthcare providers and visitors that the client is receiving oxygen therapy, reducing the risk of accidents or misunderstandings. Choice A is incorrect because instructing the client to take slow deep breaths is not the appropriate intervention after applying oxygen. Choice C suggests applying Vaseline and gauze, which is unnecessary and not a standard practice. Choice D advising the client to hyperextend the neck, take deep breaths, and cough is not indicated after applying oxygen therapy and could potentially be harmful.

5. A 93-year-old female with a history of Alzheimer's Disease gets admitted to an Alzheimer's unit. The patient has exhibited signs of increased confusion and limited stability with gait. Moreover, the patient is refusing to use a w/c. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the nurse?

A. Recommend the patient remain in her room at all times.
B. Recommend family members bring pictures to the patient's room.
C. Recommend a speech therapy consult to the doctor.
D. Recommend the patient attempt to walk pushing the w/c for safety.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a 93-year-old female with Alzheimer's Disease exhibiting signs of increased confusion and limited stability with gait, recommending family members to bring pictures to the patient's room is the most appropriate course of action. Visual stimulation in the form of pictures may help decrease signs of confusion and provide comfort to the patient. Option A is incorrect as isolating the patient in her room at all times may worsen her condition by further limiting stimulation and interaction. Option C is incorrect as speech therapy may not directly address the current issues of confusion and gait instability. Option D is incorrect as pushing a wheelchair may not be safe for the patient if she is refusing to use it, potentially leading to falls or further distress.