NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. A nurse is assigned to do pre-operative teaching on a blind patient who is scheduled for surgery the following morning. What teaching strategy would best fit the situation?
- A. Verbal teaching in short sessions throughout the day
- B. Provide a pre-operative booklet in Braille
- C. Provide an audio recording for the client
- D. Have the blind patient's family member assist with the instruction
Correct answer: Verbal teaching in short sessions throughout the day
Rationale: For a blind patient scheduled for surgery the following morning, the best teaching strategy would be verbal teaching in short sessions throughout the day. Providing information in smaller amounts makes it easier to retain, and one-on-one teaching is most effective. Choice B, providing a pre-operative booklet in Braille, may not be as practical for last-minute teaching. Choice C, providing an audio recording, may not allow for immediate interaction and clarification. Choice D, having a family member instruct the patient, may not ensure the accuracy and clarity of the information provided.
2. What is the drug of choice for herpes simplex virus 1, herpes simplex virus 2, and varicella-zoster virus?
- A. HIV.
- B. HSV 1, HSV 2, and VZV.
- C. CMV
- D. Influenza A viruses.
Correct answer: HSV 1, HSV 2, and VZV.
Rationale: Acyclovir (Zovirax) is the drug of choice for herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1), herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2), and varicella-zoster virus (VZV) infections. It works by inhibiting viral DNA replication. Acyclovir is excreted unchanged in the urine, so caution is needed in renal impairment. Choice A, HIV, is incorrect as acyclovir is not the drug of choice for HIV. Choice C, CMV, is incorrect as acyclovir is not the preferred treatment for cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections. Choice D, Influenza A viruses, is incorrect as acyclovir is not used to treat influenza viruses.
3. A client begins a regimen of chemotherapy. Her platelet count falls to 98,000. Which action is least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage?
- A. Test all excreta for occult blood.
- B. Use a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene.
- C. Implement reverse isolation.
- D. Avoid IM injections.
Correct answer: Implement reverse isolation.
Rationale: The correct answer is to implement reverse isolation. Reverse isolation is a protective measure used to protect patients from infections, not to affect the risk of hemorrhage. Testing all excreta for occult blood (Choice A) is important to monitor for signs of internal bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene (Choice B) is recommended to prevent gum bleeding. Avoiding IM injections (Choice D) is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with a low platelet count. Therefore, among the given options, implementing reverse isolation is the least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage.
4. A nurse is weighing a breastfed 6-month-old infant who has been brought to the pediatrician’s office for a scheduled visit. The infant’s weight at birth was 6 lb 8 oz. The nurse notes that the infant now weighs 13 lb. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Tell the mother to decrease the daily number of feedings because the weight gain is excessive.
- B. Tell the mother that the infant’s weight is increasing as expected.
- C. Tell the mother that the infant should continue with breast milk as the weight gain is adequate.
- D. Tell the mother that semisolid foods should not be introduced until the infant’s weight stabilizes.
Correct answer: Tell the mother that the infant’s weight is increasing as expected.
Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the mother that the infant’s weight gain is normal. Infants typically double their birth weight by 6 months, which is precisely the case here, with the infant's weight increasing from 6 lb 8 oz to 13 lb. This weight gain indicates healthy growth and development. Therefore, there is no need to decrease feedings. The infant should continue with breast milk as it is providing adequate nutrition. Additionally, introducing semisolid foods is usually recommended between 4 and 6 months of age, so there is no indication to delay based on the infant's weight gain.
5. A 70-year-old male who is recovering from a stroke exhibits signs of unilateral neglect. Which behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect?
- A. The client is observed shaving only one side of his face.
- B. The client is unable to distinguish between two tactile stimuli presented simultaneously.
- C. The client is unable to complete a range of vision without turning his head side to side.
- D. The client is unable to carry out cognitive and motor activity at the same time.
Correct answer: The client is observed shaving only one side of his face.
Rationale: Unilateral neglect is a condition where a person ignores one side of their body. In this case, the behavior of shaving only one side of the face indicates neglect of the other side. This behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect as the individual is failing to attend to one side of their body. Choices B, C, and D are not associated with unilateral neglect. Choice B refers to tactile agnosia, a condition where a person cannot recognize objects by touch, not related to ignoring one side of the body. Choice C describes a visual field cut, which is a different visual deficit. Choice D relates to dual-task interference, not specific to ignoring one side of the body.
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