NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. Which electrolyte imbalance would be the nurse's priority concern in the burn client?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypoalbuminemia
- D. Hypermagnesemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is hyperkalemia. In a burn client, the nurse's priority concern is hyperkalemia due to cell lysis, which releases potassium into the bloodstream. This can lead to dangerous levels of potassium in the blood. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is less likely in burn clients. Hypoalbuminemia (Choice C) can occur but is not the priority in the immediate management of a burn client. Hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is not typically associated with burn injuries.
2. The death of a beloved spouse places the surviving partner in which type of crisis?
- A. maturational
- B. reactive
- C. nonreactive
- D. situational
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'situational.' A situational crisis is an unexpected, unplanned event, such as the death of a spouse, which can lead to significant distress. Option A is incorrect because a maturational crisis is related to normal life transitions like getting married or retiring. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not represent recognized crisis states in the context of the scenario provided.
3. A client has been receiving cyanocobalamin (B12) injections for the past 6 weeks. Which laboratory finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?
- A. Neutrophil count of 60%
- B. Basophil count of 0.5%
- C. Monocyte count of 2%
- D. Reticulocyte count of 1%
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cyanocobalamin is a B12 medication used for pernicious anemia. A reticulocyte count of 1% indicates the desired effect of the medication, as reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that increase in response to B12 therapy, improving anemia. Neutrophils, basophils, and monocytes are white blood cells and are not directly influenced by B12 injections, making them incorrect choices.
4. Which symptom is the client who self-administered an overdose of acetaminophen most likely to exhibit?
- A. Pink frothy sputum
- B. Seizure activity
- C. Jaundiced conjunctiva
- D. Diaphoresis and fever
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client self-administers an overdose of acetaminophen, the liver is primarily affected. Jaundiced conjunctiva, which is yellowing of the eyes, is a common symptom of liver damage. Pink frothy sputum is typically associated with conditions like pulmonary edema, not acetaminophen overdose. Seizure activity is not a common symptom of acetaminophen overdose but can be seen in other toxicities. Diaphoresis and fever are more generalized symptoms and not specific to acetaminophen overdose.
5. At what age will vision be 20/20 in children?
- A. 4 years old
- B. 5 years old
- C. 6 years old
- D. 7 years old
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 6 years old. At this age, children typically have the potential for 20/20 vision. This is considered the standard age for achieving optimal vision clarity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with the age at which children achieve 20/20 vision.
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