NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Nclex PN Questions and Answers
1. Who is responsible for obtaining the signature from the client on the informed consent?
- A. the staff nurse
- B. the charge nurse
- C. the LPN
- D. the physician
Correct answer: the physician
Rationale: The correct answer is the physician. It is the physician's responsibility to ensure that the client provides informed consent by obtaining their signature. While nurses play a crucial role in the healthcare team, their responsibility lies in verifying that the consent process has been completed correctly and advocating for the client. The staff nurse, charge nurse, and LPN do not have the authority to obtain the client's signature on the informed consent form, as this is within the scope of practice of the physician.
2. When teaching a woman about possible side effects of hormone replacement therapy, the nurse should include information about all of the following except:
- A. Hypoglycemia in diabetic women.
- B. The possible return of monthly menses when taking combination hormones.
- C. Increased risk of gallbladder disease.
- D. Increased risk of breast, cervical, and ovarian cancer with long-term use.
Correct answer: Hypoglycemia in diabetic women.
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypoglycemia in diabetic women.' When educating a woman about hormone replacement therapy, it is important to discuss the possible side effects. It is true that monthly menses might return when taking combination hormones, as the progestin can cause this. Additionally, there is an increased risk of gallbladder disease associated with hormone replacement therapy. Furthermore, long-term use of hormone replacement therapy is linked to an increased risk of breast, cervical, and ovarian cancer. However, hypoglycemia is not a common side effect of hormone replacement therapy, especially in diabetic women. In fact, estrogen can have a positive impact on glucose control in some cases, so hypoglycemia would not be a typical concern.
3. If Ms. Barrett’s distance vision is 20/30, which of the following statements is true?
- A. The client can read from 20' what a person with normal vision can read at 30'.
- B. The client can read from 30' what a person with normal vision can read at 20'.
- C. The client can read the entire chart from 30'.
- D. The client can read the chart from 20' with the left eye and from 30' with the right eye.
Correct answer: The client can read from 20' what a person with normal vision can read at 30'.
Rationale: When Ms. Barrett's distance vision is measured as 20/30, it means that she can read from 20 feet away what a person with normal vision can read at 30 feet. The numerator (20) represents the distance in feet between the chart and the client, while the denominator (30) indicates the distance at which a normal eye can read the chart. In this case, Ms. Barrett's vision is slightly worse than normal, as she needs to be closer to the chart to read it clearly. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Choice B reverses the distances, Choice C assumes the client can read the entire chart from 30 feet, and Choice D introduces information not related to the 20/30 measurement.
4. Which laboratory test would be the least effective in diagnosing a myocardial infarction?
- A. AST
- B. Troponin
- C. CK-MB
- D. Myoglobin
Correct answer: A: AST
Rationale: AST, choice A, would be the least effective in diagnosing a myocardial infarction as it is not specific for this condition. Troponin, CK-MB, and myoglobin (choices B, C, and D) are more specific markers for myocardial infarction. Troponin is considered the gold standard due to its cardiac specificity. CK-MB is also specific to the heart, and its isoenzyme levels elevate post-heart damage. Myoglobin, although elevated in myocardial infarction, is not as specific as troponin and CK-MB and can also increase in conditions like burns and muscle trauma. Therefore, AST is the least effective choice for diagnosing a myocardial infarction.
5. Why is it often necessary to draw a complete blood count and differential (CBC/differential) when a client is being treated with an antiepileptic drug (AED)?
- A. The hematocrit is adversely affected due to increased vascular volume.
- B. AEDs can lead to blood dyscrasia as a side effect.
- C. AEDs may cause aplastic anemia and megaloblastic anemia.
- D. Some AEDs induce white blood cell reduction.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is being treated with antiepileptic drugs (AEDs), it is essential to monitor for potential side effects on blood parameters. Some AEDs can lead to blood dyscrasia, which includes conditions like aplastic anemia and megaloblastic anemia. Therefore, drawing a complete blood count and differential helps in identifying these adverse effects early. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary concern when monitoring blood parameters in clients on AEDs is the risk of blood dyscrasia, not changes in hematocrit due to vascular volume, white blood cell reduction, or immune modulation.
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