when a client with a major burn experiences body image disturbance which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention classification
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Questions Management of Care

1. When a client with a major burn experiences body image disturbance, which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention classification?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'grief work facilitation' because it is a nursing intervention classification specifically designed to address disturbed body image in burn clients. The expected outcome of this intervention is grief resolution, which can help the client cope with the body image changes resulting from the burn. Choice B, 'vital signs monitoring,' is not the appropriate intervention for body image disturbance in burn clients. Vital signs monitoring is typically used for assessing physiological parameters like blood pressure, pulse rate, and temperature. Choice C, 'medication administration: skin,' is more focused on treating skin-related issues rather than addressing body image disturbance. It involves the administration of medications to promote skin healing and integrity. Choice D, 'anxiety reduction,' is aimed at managing anxiety in clients with major burns and is not specifically targeted at addressing body image disturbance. While anxiety may be a common emotional response to burns, the most appropriate intervention for body image disturbance in this scenario is 'grief work facilitation.'

2. While on the wound care team, the nurse notices that a fellow nurse opens extra colloid dressings that are often thrown away when they are not needed. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to discuss with the colleague the concern about wasting supplies. By addressing this issue, the nurse can promote cost-effective care within the unit. While it may not directly impact client care, the wastage of supplies affects the unit's supply cost, making choice A incorrect. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes the charge nurse is solely responsible for the ordering process and overlooks the opportunity for direct communication between colleagues. Choice D is incorrect as it involves taking matters into one's own hands rather than addressing the issue through communication and collaboration.

3. A nursing assistant who has been employed in the long-term care center for 8 weeks is consistently taking extended lunch breaks. The nursing assistant's behavior has caused problems with client care during lunch hours. What is the appropriate way for the nurse to deal with this situation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking extended lunch breaks is an unacceptable behavior, especially when it affects client care. The appropriate way for the nurse to deal with this situation is to meet with the nursing assistant to discuss the behavior and initiate problem-solving measures. This direct approach allows for open communication and the opportunity to address the issue effectively. Ignoring the situation (Choice A), asking other staff members to cover (Choice C), or documenting the problem in the nursing assistant's personnel file (Choice B) are not effective solutions. Ignoring the behavior does not address the issue, asking others to cover may not solve the problem at its root, and documenting the problem should come after attempting to resolve the issue through communication and problem-solving first.

4. What is a significant point about Shigella that the nurse should acknowledge upon identifying it in a stool culture?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shigella is a bacteria sometimes found in stagnant water. Transmission of Shigella is typically oral-fecal, so good hand washing and the use of gloves are the best means of prevention when caring for a client with Shigella. The bacteria can be found in food and water contaminated by fecal material. Incidences of Shigella are reportable in many states. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While it is important for close contacts to be aware and practice good hygiene, testing is not routinely indicated. Shigella is not an airborne infection; it is transmitted through contaminated food or water. A one-way breathing apparatus is not necessary for caring for a patient with Shigella; standard precautions, including handwashing and gloves, are sufficient.

5. A discharge planning nurse is making arrangements for a client with an epidural catheter for continuous infusion of opioids to be placed in a long-term care facility. The family prefers a facility in its neighborhood to facilitate visiting. The neighborhood facility has never cared for a client with this type of need. What is the most appropriate action by the discharge planning nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority is the safety and well-being of the client. The neighborhood facility's lack of experience in caring for a client with an epidural catheter for continuous opioid infusion raises concerns about the quality of care they can provide. Therefore, the most appropriate action for the discharge planning nurse is to explain the situation to the client and family and seek another long-term care facility that can provide the necessary care. Option A, arranging for immediate in-services, may not be feasible or timely, considering the urgent need for appropriate care. Option C, encouraging the family to hire private duty nurses, does not ensure the facility's overall capability to manage the client's complex needs. Option D, 'None of the above,' is not the best choice as the client's safety should be the priority in this situation.

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