NCLEX-PN
Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions
1. The nurse is teaching a client about communicable diseases and explains that a portal of entry is:
- A. a vector.
- B. a source, like contaminated water.
- C. food.
- D. the respiratory system.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'the respiratory system.' A portal of entry is the path through which a microorganism enters the body. In the case of communicable diseases, the respiratory system can serve as a portal of entry for pathogens such as viruses or bacteria. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A 'vector' is an organism that transmits disease, not the entry point for pathogens. Contaminated water or food can act as sources or reservoirs of disease-causing microorganisms, not portals of entry.
2. Which of the following is not an indication for pelvic ultrasonography?
- A. to measure uterine size
- B. to detect multiple pregnancies
- C. to measure renal size
- D. to detect foreign bodies
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pelvic ultrasonography is commonly used to assess various conditions. Choices A, B, and D are all valid reasons for performing pelvic ultrasonography. Measuring uterine size helps evaluate conditions like fibroids, while detecting multiple pregnancies is essential for prenatal care. Furthermore, identifying foreign bodies can aid in diagnosing certain conditions. However, assessing renal size is typically not a primary reason for pelvic ultrasonography, making choice C the correct answer.
3. What sign might the nurse observe in a client with a high ammonia level?
- A. coma
- B. edema
- C. hypoxia
- D. polyuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Coma is a sign that a nurse might observe in a client with a high ammonia level. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by impaired brain function, which can progress to coma. Edema (choice B) is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia (choice C) is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and is not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria (choice D) refers to excessive urination and is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.
4. What is the most common cause of injury from a house fire?
- A. Explosion
- B. Falls from second-story windows
- C. Thermal damage to skin and body surfaces
- D. Inhalation injury
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Inhalation injury is the most common cause of injury from a house fire. When a fire occurs, the smoke produced contains harmful gases and particles that can be inhaled, leading to serious respiratory issues. This makes inhalation injury the primary concern during a house fire. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be the primary cause of injury. While explosions may occur in some cases, inhalation of smoke and toxic fumes is generally the most prevalent danger. Falls from windows and thermal damage to the skin are also significant risks but typically occur after inhalation injuries in the sequence of events during a house fire.
5. The nurse is teaching a client about sleep and gives background information on normal sleep patterns. Which of the following substances promotes sleep?
- A. serotonin
- B. cortisol
- C. alcohol
- D. narcotics
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Serotonin is a substance found in the body that promotes sleep. It plays a role in the synthesis of a hypnogenic factor that directly induces sleep. Cortisol is a stress hormone that can disrupt sleep patterns. Alcohol can disrupt REM sleep and negatively impact sleep quality. Narcotics, like alcohol, can interfere with sleep architecture and lead to poor quality sleep. Therefore, the correct answer is serotonin as it is associated with promoting sleep, while the other substances listed can have negative effects on sleep patterns.
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