Nursing Elites

1. Which symptoms is the client who overdosed on barbiturates most likely to exhibit?

• A. Bradypnea and bradycardia
• B. Hyperthermia and drowsiness
• C. Hyperreflexia and slurred speech
• D. Tachycardia and psychosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is bradypnea and bradycardia. Barbiturates are central nervous system (CNS) depressants, which will slow down the respiratory rate (bradypnea) and heart rate (bradycardia). Choice B, hyperthermia and drowsiness, is incorrect as barbiturate overdose typically does not cause hyperthermia but rather hypothermia. Hyperreflexia and slurred speech (Choice C) are more indicative of stimulant overdoses rather than CNS depressants like barbiturates. Tachycardia and psychosis (Choice D) are also not typically seen in barbiturate overdose, as these drugs tend to depress the CNS rather than cause symptoms of increased heart rate or psychosis.

2. A 3-day post-operative client with a Left Knee Replacement is complaining of being chilled and nauseated. Her TPR is 100.4-94-28 and Blood Pressure is 146/90. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Call the surgeon immediately.
• B. Administer Extra Strength Tylenol per orders.
• C. Assess the surgical site.
• D. Offer extra blankets and increase fluids.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to call the surgeon immediately. The client's symptoms of being chilled and nauseated, along with an elevated temperature (100.4°F), could indicate an infection following the knee replacement surgery. In this scenario, prompt action is crucial to prevent any potential complications. Calling the surgeon allows for further assessment, possible diagnostic tests, and appropriate interventions to be initiated. Administering Tylenol or offering blankets and fluids may temporarily alleviate symptoms but do not address the underlying issue of a potential infection. Assessing the surgical site is important but not as urgent as involving the surgeon in this situation.

3. A client is admitted for observation following an unrestrained motor vehicle accident. A bystander stated that he lost consciousness for 1-2 minutes. On admission, the client's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) was 14. The GCS is now 12. The nurse should:

• A. Re-assess in 15 minutes
• B. Stimulate the client with a sternal rub
• C. Administer Tylenol with codeine for a headache
• D. Notify the physician

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score from 14 to 12 indicates a significant neurological change in the client's condition. This change can be indicative of a deterioration in the client's neurological status, possibly due to intracranial bleeding or swelling. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the physician immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention. Re-assessing in 15 minutes or stimulating the client with a sternal rub are not appropriate actions in this situation as they do not address the underlying cause of the decrease in GCS. Administering Tylenol with codeine for a headache is also not recommended without further assessment and evaluation of the client's condition.

4. What is the priority nursing action for a laboring client dilated to 6 cm receiving an epidural?

• A. Continuous monitoring of maternal blood pressure.
• B. Frequent auscultation of the fetal heart rate.
• C. Administering an IV fluid bolus of at least 500 cc.
• D. Frequent monitoring of the maternal temperature.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing action for a laboring client dilated to 6 cm receiving an epidural is continuous monitoring of maternal blood pressure. This is crucial because epidural anesthesia can lead to a precipitous drop in blood pressure, which can be dangerous for both the mother and fetus by reducing cardiac output and placental perfusion. While frequent auscultation of the fetal heart rate is important, it is not the priority in this situation. Administering an IV fluid bolus of at least 500 cc may not be necessary if the client's blood pressure is stable. Monitoring the maternal temperature is also essential but takes precedence over blood pressure monitoring.

5. A nurse assesses an 83-year-old female's venous ulcer for the second time that is located near the right medial malleolus. The wound is exhibiting purulent drainage, and the patient has limited mobility in her home. Which of the following is the best course of action?

• A. Encourage warm water soaks to the right foot.
• B. Notify the case manager of the purulent drainage.
• C. Determine the patient's pulse in the right ankle.
• D. Recommend increased activity to reduce the purulent drainage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct course of action is to encourage warm water soaks to the right foot. This can help promote wound healing and alleviate discomfort. Before recommending increased activity or notifying additional team members, it is crucial to assess arterial blood flow by determining the patient's pulse in the right ankle. Poor arterial blood flow could worsen the condition, making increased activity inappropriate. While notifying the case manager of purulent drainage is important, addressing the wound care directly should be the primary focus at this stage.

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