a client is having a tubal ligation in the outpatient surgical clinic postoperatively it is priority for the nurse to determine
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX Question of The Day

1. After a client has a tubal ligation in the outpatient surgical clinic, what is the priority for the nurse to determine?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority for the nurse is to ensure the client has a safe way to get home and adequate care after discharge. It is crucial to determine the client's transportation arrangements and availability of care at home to ensure a smooth transition postoperatively. Options A and B, though important, are not immediate priorities compared to the client's safety and well-being after the procedure. Option D is incorrect as spending the night at the surgical center is not typically part of the plan for outpatient surgery.

2. Post thyroidectomy the nurse assesses for complications by performing which of the following assessments?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Chvostek's. A positive Chvostek's and Trousseau's sign is indicative of tetany, which is associated with low calcium levels. This can occur if parathyroid glands are accidentally removed during thyroidectomy. Accu-Chek is a brand of blood glucose monitor used for checking blood sugar levels and is not relevant in this context. Ballottement is a technique used in physical examination to assess for fluid in the body, typically in the abdomen or joints. Ice water colonic is not a standard medical assessment and is not relevant to post-thyroidectomy complications.

3. Which sexually transmitted disease, sometimes referred to as the silent STD, is more common than gonorrhea and a leading cause of PID?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Chlamydia. Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that can often be asymptomatic, earning it the nickname 'silent STD.' It is more common than gonorrhea and is a leading cause of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID). Genital herpes (Choice A) is a viral infection, not a bacterial STD like chlamydia. Trichomoniasis (Choice B) is a parasitic infection and not commonly associated with causing PID. Syphilis (Choice C) is a bacterial infection but is not as common as chlamydia and is not a leading cause of PID.

4. When teaching a client about anti-retroviral therapy for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the PN should emphasize:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When teaching a client about anti-retroviral therapy for HIV, it is crucial to emphasize that therapy must not be interrupted to prevent viral resistance. HIV mutates rapidly, and any interruption can lead to the emergence of resistant strains, compromising treatment effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because keeping the virus in check with anti-retrovirals helps the client's immune system fight off opportunistic infections. Choices C and D are incorrect because therapy should not be interrupted for any reason. If toxicity occurs, the healthcare provider may adjust the treatment regimen by prescribing alternative anti-retroviral drugs.

5. What is pica?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pica is a disorder characterized by the ingestion of nonfood substances, which can lead to a clinical iron deficiency. It may be the first sign of an underlying issue. Individuals with pica consume a variety of nonfood items such as ice, clay, dirt, or paste. Choice A, dependency on alcohol, is incorrect as it is not related to pica. Choice B, increased iron in the diet, is incorrect because pica involves ingesting nonfood items rather than having an increased intake of iron. Choice C, the sickle cell trait, is unrelated to pica and is therefore incorrect.

Similar Questions

A nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with Emphysema about the disease process. Which of the following statements best explains the problems associated with emphysema and could be adapted for use in the nurse's discussion with the client?
A patient has suffered a left CVA and developed severe hemiparesis resulting in a loss of mobility. The nurse notices on assessment that an area over the patient's left elbow appears as non-blanchable erythema, and the skin is intact. The nurse should score the patient as having which of the following?
The nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin therapy (Coumadin®) following a stroke. The client's PT/INR was completed at 7:00 A.M. prior to the morning meal with an INR reading of 4.0. Which of the following is the nurse's first priority?
The chemotherapeutic agent 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) is ordered for a client as an adjunct measure to surgery. Which statement about chemotherapy is true?
A 27-year-old woman has delivered twins in the OB unit. The patient develops a condition of 5-centimeter diastasis recti abdominis. Which of the following statements is the most accurate when instructing the patient?

Access More Features

NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses