Nursing Elites

1. After a client has a tubal ligation in the outpatient surgical clinic, what is the priority for the nurse to determine?

• A. The client's prior experiences with outpatient surgery
• B. The client's medical plan and the extent of coverage for outpatient surgery
• C. The client's plan for transportation and care at home
• D. The client's plan to spend the night at the surgical center

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority for the nurse is to ensure the client has a safe way to get home and adequate care after discharge. It is crucial to determine the client's transportation arrangements and availability of care at home to ensure a smooth transition postoperatively. Options A and B, though important, are not immediate priorities compared to the client's safety and well-being after the procedure. Option D is incorrect as spending the night at the surgical center is not typically part of the plan for outpatient surgery.

2. After a client with an Automated Internal Cardiac Defibrillator (AICD) is successfully defibrillated for Ventricular Fibrillation (VF), what should the nurse do next?

• A. Go to the client to assess for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output.
• B. Call the physician to inform them of the VF episode for medication adjustments.
• C. Call the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD in case of a recurrence.
• D. Document the incident on the code report form and follow up regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a client is successfully defibrillated, the immediate priority is to assess the client for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output, such as altered level of consciousness, chest pain, shortness of breath, or hypotension. This assessment is crucial to determine the effectiveness of the defibrillation and the client's current hemodynamic status. Calling the physician for medication adjustments without assessing the client first could delay essential interventions. Contacting the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD is not the initial action needed after successful defibrillation. Documenting the incident is important but should not take precedence over assessing the client's immediate condition.

3. A patient has suffered a left CVA and developed severe hemiparesis resulting in a loss of mobility. The nurse notices on assessment that an area over the patient's left elbow appears as non-blanchable erythema, and the skin is intact. The nurse should score the patient as having which of the following?

• A. Stage I pressure ulcer
• B. Stage II pressure ulcer
• C. Stage III pressure ulcer
• D. Stage IV pressure ulcer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythema with the skin intact is characteristic of a Stage I pressure ulcer. At this stage, the skin is not broken, but there is localized redness that does not blanch when pressed. Stage II pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss, Stage III pressure ulcers have full-thickness skin loss, and Stage IV pressure ulcers extend to deeper tissues, including muscle and bone. In this case, the non-blanchable erythema with intact skin aligns with the characteristics of a Stage I pressure ulcer.

4. Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children include all of the following except:

• A. nasal flaring
• B. grunting
• C. seesaw breathing
• D. quivering lips

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children can manifest in various ways. Nasal flaring, grunting, and seesaw breathing are all indicative of respiratory distress in pediatric patients. Nasal flaring is the widening of the nostrils with breathing effort, grunting is a sound made during exhalation to try to keep the airways open, and seesaw breathing involves the chest moving in the opposite direction of the abdomen. However, quivering lips are not typically associated with impaired breathing in this context. Lip quivering is a distracter and not a common sign of respiratory distress in infants and children. Therefore, the correct answer is 'quivering lips.'

5. The client has just returned from electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) and is very drowsy. What is the position of choice until the client regains full consciousness?

• A. Supine
• B. Fowlers
• C. Lateral
• D. High Fowlers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lateral.' When a client is very drowsy or sedated, placing them in the lateral position is important to maintain an open airway and allow for drainage of secretions. This position helps prevent airway obstruction and aspiration. Choice A, 'Supine,' is lying flat on the back and may not be ideal for a drowsy client due to the risk of airway compromise. Choice B, 'Fowlers,' is a semi-sitting position that is beneficial for clients with respiratory distress, but it may not be the best choice for a very drowsy individual. Choice D, 'High Fowlers,' is a more upright sitting position, which again may not be suitable for a drowsy client as it does not facilitate airway patency as effectively as the lateral position.

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