a client is having a tubal ligation in the outpatient surgical clinic postoperatively it is priority for the nurse to determine
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX Question of The Day

1. After a client has a tubal ligation in the outpatient surgical clinic, what is the priority for the nurse to determine?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority for the nurse is to ensure the client has a safe way to get home and adequate care after discharge. It is crucial to determine the client's transportation arrangements and availability of care at home to ensure a smooth transition postoperatively. Options A and B, though important, are not immediate priorities compared to the client's safety and well-being after the procedure. Option D is incorrect as spending the night at the surgical center is not typically part of the plan for outpatient surgery.

2. When encountering the significant other of a patient with end-stage AIDS crying during her smoke break, what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Approaching the significant other, offering tissues, and encouraging her to verbalize her feelings is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take. Being left alone during the grief process isolates individuals, and they need an outlet for their feelings. By showing empathy and providing support, the nurse can help the significant other cope with her emotions. Choices A, B, and C are inappropriate because they do not offer support or encourage the expression of feelings, which are crucial in such situations.

3. After a left heart catheterization (LHC), a client complains of severe foot pain on the side of the femoral stick. The nurse notes pulselessness, pallor, and a cold extremity. What should the nurse's next action be?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to notify the physician immediately (stat). The client's symptoms of foot pain, pulselessness, pallor, and cold extremity suggest a potential vascular complication, such as arterial occlusion. Prompt notification of the physician is crucial as this condition requires urgent intervention to restore blood flow and prevent tissue damage. Administering an anticoagulant (Choice A) without physician evaluation could be harmful as the underlying cause needs to be determined first. Warming the room and re-assessing (Choice B) may delay necessary treatment. Increasing IV fluids (Choice C) is unlikely to address the urgent vascular issue indicated by the symptoms described.

4. Metformin (Glucophage) is administered to clients with type II diabetes mellitus. Metformin is an example of:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metformin is classified as an antihyperglycemic agent because it works by reducing hepatic glucose output and decreasing glucose absorption from the gut, thereby preventing hyperglycemia. Choice B, a hypoglycemic agent, is incorrect as hypoglycemic agents stimulate insulin production, which is not the mechanism of action of metformin. Choice C, an insulin analogue, is incorrect as metformin is not a type of insulin but a distinct medication. Choice D, a pancreatic alpha cell stimulant, is incorrect as metformin does not stimulate any pancreatic cells, but rather acts on the liver and gut to lower blood sugar levels.

5. A client who is newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and beginning medication therapy asks the nurse, 'How soon will I see improvement?' The nurse's best response is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the case of Parkinson's disease, improvement in symptoms may take several weeks of therapy to become noticeable. Therefore, the correct answer is to inform the client that it might take several weeks before they notice improvement. Choice A acknowledges individual variability but does not provide a specific timeframe, making it less reassuring. Choice B suggests deferring the question to the physician, which is not the most supportive response. Choice C is incorrect because improvement in Parkinson's disease symptoms typically does not occur within a few days.

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