Nursing Elites

1. After a client has a tubal ligation in the outpatient surgical clinic, what is the priority for the nurse to determine?

• A. The client's prior experiences with outpatient surgery
• B. The client's medical plan and the extent of coverage for outpatient surgery
• C. The client's plan for transportation and care at home
• D. The client's plan to spend the night at the surgical center

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority for the nurse is to ensure the client has a safe way to get home and adequate care after discharge. It is crucial to determine the client's transportation arrangements and availability of care at home to ensure a smooth transition postoperatively. Options A and B, though important, are not immediate priorities compared to the client's safety and well-being after the procedure. Option D is incorrect as spending the night at the surgical center is not typically part of the plan for outpatient surgery.

2. When administering intravenous electrolyte solution, what precaution should the nurse take?

• A. Infuse hypertonic solutions cautiously.
• B. Mix no more than 60 mEq of potassium per liter of fluid.
• C. Prevent infiltration of calcium, which causes tissue necrosis and sloughing.
• D. Monitor the client's digitalis dosage for adjustments due to IV calcium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering intravenous electrolyte solutions, preventing the infiltration of calcium is crucial to avoid tissue necrosis and sloughing, making choice C the correct answer. Choice A is revised to 'Infuse hypertonic solutions cautiously' because hypertonic solutions should be infused cautiously to prevent adverse effects. Choice B is corrected to 'Mix no more than 60 mEq of potassium per liter of fluid' as exceeding this limit can lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is modified to 'Monitor the client's digitalis dosage for adjustments due to IV calcium' as it is essential to monitor the digitalis dosage for potential adjustments when IV calcium is administered; however, this choice is incorrect here as it inaccurately suggests adjusting the digitalis dosage due to IV calcium, which could lead to harmful effects.

3. The charge nurse is observing a student nurse caring for a 4-month-old infant in isolation diagnosed with RSV. Which of the following would indicate to the charge nurse that the student nurse needs further instruction on isolation standards?

• A. Donning clean gloves each time she goes in the room.
• B. Wearing a clean mask each time she goes in the room.
• C. Labeling the door so staff will use Airborne Precautions.
• D. Wearing a gown when she goes in the room to administer medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Donning clean gloves each time she goes in the room.' Sterile gloves are not necessary for standard isolation precautions; clean gloves are sufficient. The student nurse should be instructed to use clean gloves to reduce the risk of spreading infections. Wearing a clean mask each time she goes in the room is a good practice to prevent the spread of respiratory infections like RSV. Labeling the door for Airborne Precautions is appropriate for RSV. Wearing a gown when entering the room to administer medication helps prevent the transmission of infectious agents.

4. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• A. increased platelet count
• B. increased fibrinogen
• C. decreased fibrin split products
• D. decreased bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.

5. Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding?

• A. metastatic liver cancer
• B. gram-negative septicemia
• C. pernicious anemia
• D. iron-deficiency anemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pernicious anemia is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding. Pernicious anemia results from vitamin B12 deficiency due to a lack of intrinsic factor, leading to faulty absorption from the gastrointestinal tract. While pernicious anemia can lead to other health issues, bleeding tendencies are not a primary concern. Metastatic liver cancer (choice A) can cause liver dysfunction leading to decreased synthesis of clotting factors, increasing the risk of bleeding. Gram-negative septicemia (choice B) can lead to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) causing excessive bleeding. Iron-deficiency anemia (choice D) can result in microcytic hypochromic red blood cells, which can impair oxygen transport and lead to tissue hypoxia, but it is not directly associated with a significant potential for bleeding.

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