Nursing Elites

1. After a client has a tubal ligation in the outpatient surgical clinic, what is the priority for the nurse to determine?

• A. The client's prior experiences with outpatient surgery
• B. The client's medical plan and the extent of coverage for outpatient surgery
• C. The client's plan for transportation and care at home
• D. The client's plan to spend the night at the surgical center

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority for the nurse is to ensure the client has a safe way to get home and adequate care after discharge. It is crucial to determine the client's transportation arrangements and availability of care at home to ensure a smooth transition postoperatively. Options A and B, though important, are not immediate priorities compared to the client's safety and well-being after the procedure. Option D is incorrect as spending the night at the surgical center is not typically part of the plan for outpatient surgery.

2. A mother of a newborn notices a nurse placing liquid in her baby's eyes. Which of the following is an inaccurate statement about the need for eyedrops following birth?

• A. Eyedrops following birth help reduce the risk of eye infection.
• B. Eyedrops are required by law.
• C. Eyedrops will keep the eye moist.
• D. Eyedrops are required by law every 6 hours following birth.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Eyedrops are required by law every 6 hours following birth.' This statement is inaccurate because while laws do require the placement of eyedrops, physicians indicate a specific timeframe for their administration. Choice A is correct because eyedrops following birth do help reduce the risk of eye infection by preventing ophthalmia neonatorum. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that eyedrops are mandated solely by law, without considering medical reasons. Choice C is accurate as eyedrops do help keep the eye moist, preventing dryness and discomfort.

3. A nurse suspects a patient is developing Bell's Palsy. The nurse wants to test the function of cranial nerve VII. Which of the following would be the most appropriate testing procedures?

• A. Test the taste sensation over the back of the tongue and activation of the facial muscles.
• B. Test the taste sensation over the front of the tongue and activation of the facial muscles.
• C. Test the sensation of the facial muscles and sensation of the back of the tongue.
• D. Test the sensation of the facial muscles and sensation of the front of the tongue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The facial nerve (VII) is responsible for motor function to the face and sensory function to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Therefore, to appropriately test the function of cranial nerve VII, the most appropriate testing procedures involve assessing the taste sensation over the front of the tongue (sensory) and activation of the facial muscles (motor). Option B, 'Test the taste sensation over the front of the tongue and activation of the facial muscles,' is the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the correct combination of sensory testing over the front of the tongue and motor activation of the facial muscles, which are key functions associated with cranial nerve VII.

4. What is the next step for a 64-year-old male diagnosed with COPD and CHF who shows a 10 lbs increase in total body weight over the last few days?

• A. Contact the patient's physician immediately.
• B. Check the intake and output on the patient's flow sheet.
• C. Encourage the patient to ambulate to reduce lower extremity edema.
• D. Check the patient's vitals every 2 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a patient with COPD and CHF experiencing a sudden increase in total body weight, the priority is to check the intake and output on the patient's flow sheet to evaluate fluid balance. This assessment helps determine if the weight gain is due to fluid retention, which can exacerbate CHF. Contacting the physician may be necessary based on the intake and output findings. While encouraging ambulation is beneficial for circulation, it may not address the root cause of fluid retention. Checking vitals every 2 hours is important for monitoring stability but may not pinpoint the reason behind the weight gain.

5. A client is admitted to the critical care unit after suffering from a massive cerebral vascular accident. The client's vital signs include BP 160/110, HR 42, Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Based on this assessment, the nurse anticipates the client to be in which acid-base balance?

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting Cheyne-Stokes respirations, which are characterized by periods of deep breathing alternating with apnea. This pattern indicates respiratory insufficiency, resulting in an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood. The elevated BP and slow heart rate further support the respiratory insufficiency, leading to respiratory acidosis. Therefore, the correct answer is Respiratory acidosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Respiratory alkalosis is characterized by decreased carbon dioxide levels in the blood, which is not indicated by the client's presentation. Metabolic acidosis results from conditions such as renal failure or diabetic ketoacidosis and is not the primary imbalance in this case. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels, which are not present in the client's vital signs.

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