Nursing Elites

1. A mother who has never breastfed a child before is having trouble getting the baby to latch on to the breast. The baby has lost 3% of its birth weight within the first 2 days of life. The best statement is:

• A. The baby will eventually take to the breast.
• B. I can prepare a bottle if you want to try that.
• C. A small amount of weight loss in the first few days is normal.
• D. I can arrange for the charge nurse to come and talk to you about breastfeeding.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A small amount of weight loss in the first few days is normal.' It is important to reassure the mother that a small amount of weight loss, such as 5-10% of birth weight, in the first few days of life is considered normal for newborns. This reassurance helps alleviate the mother's concerns. Option A is incorrect because it does not address the concern about weight loss; it focuses more on the baby eventually latching on. Option B is not recommended as the first solution for breastfeeding issues, as introducing a bottle early on may lead to nipple confusion. Option D involves escalating the situation to the charge nurse when it can be addressed by providing appropriate information and support directly, making it less necessary in this scenario where reassurance and education are key.

2. Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding?

• A. metastatic liver cancer
• B. gram-negative septicemia
• C. pernicious anemia
• D. iron-deficiency anemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pernicious anemia is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding compared to the other conditions listed. Pernicious anemia is a condition resulting from vitamin B12 deficiency due to the absence of intrinsic factor, necessary for B12 absorption. While pernicious anemia can lead to neurological issues, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of bleeding. Metastatic liver cancer can cause liver dysfunction leading to coagulopathy, gram-negative septicemia can result in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and iron-deficiency anemia can lead to microcytic hypochromic red blood cells, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, pernicious anemia is the least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding out of the options provided.

3. A client newly diagnosed with Diabetes Mellitus needs education. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in this education?

• A. "You can eat anything you want, but avoid foods with sugar."?
• B. "You need to lose weight, so your diet must be controlled."?
• C. "You need a diet and exercise program."?
• D. "You must reduce salt, fat, and sugar intake in your diet."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client newly diagnosed with Diabetes Mellitus requires education on managing their condition. Choice C is the correct answer because it emphasizes the importance of a comprehensive approach involving both diet and exercise. This holistic approach is crucial in managing blood sugar levels and overall health for individuals with diabetes. Choice A is incorrect as it provides misleading information by suggesting that the client can eat anything as long as it doesn't contain sugar, which is not accurate for diabetes management. Choice B is not the best option as it focuses solely on weight loss rather than addressing the holistic needs of a diabetic individual. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests eliminating all salt, fat, and sugar, which is an extreme approach and not a realistic or balanced way to manage diabetes.

4. A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:

• A. a maintenance dose.
• B. a loading dose.
• C. a medication with no first-pass effect.
• D. the medication to be given intravenously.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration, a loading or priming dose is ordered. This dose quickly establishes the desired drug level. It is calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose, like choice A, is used to maintain the therapeutic level after the loading dose. Waiting for steady state without a loading dose would take five drug half-lives. Choice C, a medication with no first-pass effect, does not directly address the need for rapid attainment of therapeutic levels. While intravenous administration (choice D) offers excellent bioavailability, a single dose by this route may not achieve the desired therapeutic plasma concentration as rapidly as a loading dose.

5. For a client with suspected appendicitis, in which quadrant should the nurse expect to find abdominal tenderness?

• A. upper right
• B. upper left
• C. lower right
• D. lower left

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: lower right. Abdominal tenderness in the lower-right quadrant is a classic sign of appendicitis. The appendix is located in the lower right abdomen, so inflammation of the appendix typically causes tenderness in this specific area. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tenderness in the upper right, upper left, and lower left quadrants, respectively, is not typical in appendicitis cases. Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing the lower right quadrant for tenderness when suspecting appendicitis.

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