NCLEX-PN
Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions
1. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?
- A. The cause and mode of transmission are well understood.
- B. There is no known cure for the disease.
- C. When the primary lesion heals, the disease is cured.
- D. Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.
2. Upon first meeting, a new nurse manager makes eye contact, smiles, initiates conversation about the previous work experience of nurses, and encourages active participation by nurses in the dialogue. Her behavior is an example of:
- A. Aggressiveness.
- B. Passive aggressiveness.
- C. Passiveness.
- D. Assertiveness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Assertiveness.' This nurse manager is demonstrating assertive behavior by confidently engaging with the nurses, showing interest in their work experience, and encouraging active participation. Aggressive behavior is forceful and dominating, while passive behavior is submissive and timid. Passive-aggressive behavior involves indirect manipulation or control, which is not demonstrated in this scenario.
3. Which situation is an example of the use of evidence-based practice in the delivery of client care?
- A. Encouraging a client who has had a stroke to consume thickened liquids and soft foods
- B. Picking up a dislodged radiation implant with long-handled forceps and placing it in a lead container to minimize radiation exposure
- C. Pouring 1 to 2 mL of sterile solution that will be used for wound cleansing into a plastic-lined waste receptacle before pouring the solution into a sterile basin
- D. Blowing on a fingerstick site to dry it after cleaning the site with an alcohol swab
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Evidence-based practice is an approach that integrates client preferences, clinical expertise, and the best research evidence to deliver quality care. Pouring sterile solution into a plastic-lined waste receptacle before using it for wound cleansing reflects evidence-based practice by preventing the entrance of harmful bacteria into the wound. Option A is incorrect because encouraging a stroke client to consume thickened liquids and soft foods is appropriate, not thin liquids and foods that pose a choking risk. Option B is incorrect as picking up a radiation implant with long-handled forceps to minimize radiation exposure is a safety measure, not evidence-based practice. Option D is incorrect because blowing on a fingerstick site after cleaning can recontaminate the site, which goes against best practices in infection control.
4. During surgery, it is found that a client with adenocarcinoma of the rectum has positive peritoneal lymph nodes. What is the next most likely site of metastasis?
- A. brain
- B. bone
- C. liver
- D. mediastinum
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases of adenocarcinoma of the rectum with positive peritoneal lymph nodes, the most likely site of metastasis is the liver. Colon tumors commonly spread through the lymphatics and portal vein to the liver. While metastasis to the brain, bone, or mediastinum is possible, the liver is typically the first to be affected due to the anatomical pathways involved in colorectal cancer metastasis. Therefore, the correct answer is the liver. Metastasis to the brain, bone, or mediastinum would be less likely at this stage of colorectal cancer progression.
5. Which of the following are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?
- A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
- B. Protease inhibitors
- C. HIV fusion inhibitors
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, protease inhibitors block the activity of the HIV-1 protease enzyme, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, all the choices provided are valid antiviral drug classes for managing HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, and HIV fusion inhibitors play crucial roles in combating the virus at different stages. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors target an early stage, protease inhibitors act on a later stage, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent viral entry. Thus, 'All of the above' is the correct and comprehensive answer encompassing different mechanisms of action in managing HIV/AIDS.
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