NCLEX-PN
Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions
1. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?
- A. The cause and mode of transmission are well understood.
- B. There is no known cure for the disease.
- C. When the primary lesion heals, the disease is cured.
- D. Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.
2. A nursing instructor asks a nursing student to describe accountability. Which statement(s) by the student indicate(s) an accurate description of accountability?
- A. Check the unit policy for the protocol for the care of clients who have been sexually assaulted.
- B. Ask a medical assistant.
- C. Call the nurse in charge of the day shift.
- D. Ask the police officers who brought the client to the center.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Accountability in nursing involves taking responsibility for one's actions and decisions. In this scenario, checking the unit policy for the protocol related to the care of sexually assaulted clients demonstrates accountability. Policies and protocols provide guidance on appropriate actions and responsibilities in specific situations. Asking a medical assistant, calling the day shift nurse in charge, or consulting police officers are not appropriate actions to demonstrate accountability in this context. Seeking further clarification from the agency nursing supervisor on the night shift after reviewing the policy or protocol would be a more suitable course of action.
3. An Asian family has an elderly member with the latest stage of Alzheimer's disease. The physician has recommended placement in a long-term care facility, but the family refuses. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. "You really need to listen to what the physician says."?
- B. "You will get too tired to take care of him at home."?
- C. "What can I do to assist you to care for him at home?"?
- D. "You are too busy to be taking care of an elderly person."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is, "What can I do to assist you to care for him at home?"? This response shows cultural sensitivity and respect for the family's values. In many Asian cultures, there is a strong tradition of caring for elders at home rather than in a long-term care facility. By offering assistance to the family in caring for their elderly member at home, the nurse shows understanding and support. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not acknowledge or respect the family's cultural beliefs and values regarding caring for elderly family members.
4. When assessing a client with terminal cancer receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of morphine sulfate, what should the nurse check first?
- A. Temperature
- B. Respiratory status
- C. Pulse
- D. Urine output
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assessing a client with terminal cancer receiving morphine sulfate via continuous intravenous infusion, the nurse's priority should be checking the client's respiratory status first. Morphine sulfate can lead to respiratory depression, emphasizing the need for close monitoring of breathing. While temperature, pulse, and urine output are all essential components of the assessment, ensuring adequate respiratory function takes precedence due to the potential risk of respiratory depression associated with morphine sulfate. Promptly assessing respiratory status enables early identification of any signs of respiratory distress or depression, allowing for immediate intervention if needed.
5. The healthcare provider sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?
- A. an antibiotic such as Metronidazole and a protease inhibitor (Saquinavir)
- B. two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
- C. one protease inhibitor such as Nelfinavir
- D. two protease inhibitors
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario of a needle puncture requiring HIV prophylaxis, the CDC recommends initiating treatment with two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, unless there is drug resistance. This regimen is preferred over other options such as a single protease inhibitor or two protease inhibitors due to its effectiveness and safety profile in this specific context. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis due to their activity against HIV and lower risk of resistance development compared to other antiretroviral drug classes.
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