Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching a client about erythema infectiosum. Which of the following factors is not correct?

• A. There is no rash.
• B. The disorder is uncommon in adults.
• C. There is no fever.
• D. There is sometimes a 'slapped face' appearance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The disorder is uncommon in adults.' Erythema infectiosum, also known as Fifth's disease, is more common in children than in adults. It typically presents with a rash on the face that gives a 'slapped cheek' or 'slapped face' appearance. Fever may be present, and there is a characteristic rash associated with the condition. Therefore, the statement 'The disorder is uncommon in adults' is incorrect, making it the correct answer. The other statements are true regarding erythema infectiosum, making them incorrect choices. There is indeed a rash associated with erythema infectiosum, which can be a prominent feature. Fever may also be present in individuals with this condition. Additionally, the 'slapped face' appearance is a classic characteristic of erythema infectiosum.

2. A client states, 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.' Which statement indicates to the nurse that the client needs further information on how to use the diaphragm?

• A. 'I need to reapply spermicidal cream with repeated intercourse.'
• B. 'The diaphragm needs to be filled with spermicidal cream before insertion.'
• C. 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.'
• D. 'The diaphragm can be inserted as long as 6 hours before intercourse.'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the statement, 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.' This statement indicates a lack of understanding about the correct use of the diaphragm. The diaphragm must be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure effectiveness and reduce the risk of pregnancy. Leaving the diaphragm in place for an extended period can lead to toxic shock syndrome. Choice A is correct as spermicidal cream needs to be reapplied before each act of intercourse for optimal contraceptive efficacy. Choice B is a correct statement as the diaphragm should be filled with spermicidal cream before insertion to increase its effectiveness. Choice D is also accurate as the diaphragm can be inserted up to 6 hours before intercourse to allow time for proper placement and effectiveness.

3. In a disaster triage situation, which of the following should the nurse be least concerned with regarding a client in crisis?

• A. ability to breathe
• B. pallor or cyanosis of the skin
• C. number of accompanying family members
• D. motor function

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a disaster triage situation where quick decisions are crucial, the nurse's primary focus should be on factors directly related to the patient's immediate condition and survival. The ability to breathe, pallor or cyanosis of the skin, and motor function are critical indicators of a patient's health status and need for urgent intervention. In contrast, the number of accompanying family members, although important for emotional support, is not a priority when assessing and prioritizing care during a crisis. While emotional support is valuable, the focus in triage is on identifying and addressing the most critical and life-threatening issues first to maximize survival chances. Therefore, the nurse should be least concerned with the number of accompanying family members as it does not directly impact the patient's immediate medical needs in a crisis situation. Choices A, B, and D are all crucial factors to assess a client's health status and determine the urgency of intervention during a disaster triage. The ability to breathe indicates respiratory function, pallor or cyanosis of the skin reflect circulatory and oxygenation status, and motor function can hint at neurological impairment or injury, all of which are vital in determining the severity of the crisis and the immediate medical needs of the patient.

4. A gastroenterologist should be consulted for clients suffering from:

• A. digestive system diseases
• B. urinary system diseases
• C. female reproductive system diseases
• D. nervous system diseases

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A gastroenterologist specializes in treating diseases and disorders of the digestive system, including the stomach, intestines, liver, and pancreas. Therefore, clients with digestive system diseases should consult a gastroenterologist. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because urinary system diseases are managed by urologists, female reproductive system diseases by gynecologists, and nervous system diseases by neurologists.

5. Which of the following isoenzymes is elevated in a client who has had a myocardial infarction?

• A. CPK-BB
• B. CPK-MM
• C. CPK-MB
• D. CPK-MI

Correct answer: C

Rationale: CPK-MB is the correct answer as it is elevated in clients who have had a myocardial infarction. CPK-BB is elevated in clients with brain damage, and CPK-MM is elevated in clients with skeletal muscle damage. CPK-MI, mentioned in the rationale, does not exist, making it an incorrect choice.

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