Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is not typically considered one of the main mechanisms of Type II Diabetes treatment?

• A. Medications
• B. Nutrition
• C. Increased activity
• D. Continuous Insulin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Continuous Insulin is not typically considered one of the main mechanisms for treating Type II Diabetes. While medications, nutrition, and increased activity play crucial roles in managing Type II Diabetes, continuous insulin therapy is more common in Type I Diabetes or in specific cases of Type II Diabetes where other treatments are ineffective. Therefore, the correct answer is Continuous Insulin. Choices A, B, and C are mainstays in the treatment of Type II Diabetes, making them incorrect answers.

2. Melissa Smith came to the Emergency Department in the last week before her estimated date of confinement complaining of headaches, blurred vision, and vomiting. Suspecting PIH, the nurse should best respond to Melissa's complaints with which of the following statements?

• A. "The physician will probably want to admit you for observation."?
• B. "The physician will probably order bedrest at home."?
• C. "These are really dangerous signs."?
• D. "The physician will probably prescribe some medicine for you."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can present after 20 weeks gestation. It is characterized by symptoms like edema, hypertension, and proteinuria, which can progress to conditions like pre-eclampsia and eclampsia. The best approach for a client with advanced PIH is rest, and home provides the most suitable environment for it. Hospitalization is not typically necessary for PIH unless there are severe complications. Medication alone is not the primary intervention for PIH; management often involves monitoring, rest, and close medical supervision. Therefore, advising bedrest at home is the most appropriate response to help manage PIH symptoms and prevent further complications, such as pre-eclampsia or eclampsia. The other options, like hospitalization for observation, emphasizing the danger of the signs without providing guidance, or assuming medication as the primary solution, are not in line with the standard management approach for PIH.

3. Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children include all of the following except:

• A. nasal flaring
• B. grunting
• C. seesaw breathing
• D. quivering lips

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children can manifest in various ways. Nasal flaring, grunting, and seesaw breathing are all indicative of respiratory distress in pediatric patients. Nasal flaring is the widening of the nostrils with breathing effort, grunting is a sound made during exhalation to try to keep the airways open, and seesaw breathing involves the chest moving in the opposite direction of the abdomen. However, quivering lips are not typically associated with impaired breathing in this context. Lip quivering is a distracter and not a common sign of respiratory distress in infants and children. Therefore, the correct answer is 'quivering lips.'

4. When placing an IV line in a patient with active TB and HIV, which safety equipment should the nurse wear?

• A. Sterile gloves, mask, and goggles
• B. Surgical cap, gloves, mask, and proper shoewear
• C. Double gloves, gown, and mask
• D. Goggles, mask, gloves, and gown

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When dealing with a patient with active TB and HIV, the nurse should wear goggles, a mask, gloves, and a gown to protect themselves from potential exposure to infectious agents through respiratory secretions or blood. Surgical cap and proper shoewear are not specifically required for this procedure, making option B incorrect. Double gloving is not necessary in this scenario, hence option C is incorrect. Therefore, the correct choice is D as it includes all the essential protective equipment for this situation.

5. A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:

• A. a maintenance dose.
• B. a loading dose.
• C. a medication with no first-pass effect.
• D. the medication to be given intravenously.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration, a loading or priming dose is ordered. This dose quickly establishes the desired drug level. It is calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose, like choice A, is used to maintain the therapeutic level after the loading dose. Waiting for steady state without a loading dose would take five drug half-lives. Choice C, a medication with no first-pass effect, does not directly address the need for rapid attainment of therapeutic levels. While intravenous administration (choice D) offers excellent bioavailability, a single dose by this route may not achieve the desired therapeutic plasma concentration as rapidly as a loading dose.

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