Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is not typically considered one of the main mechanisms of Type II Diabetes treatment?

• A. Medications
• B. Nutrition
• C. Increased activity
• D. Continuous Insulin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Continuous Insulin is not typically considered one of the main mechanisms for treating Type II Diabetes. While medications, nutrition, and increased activity play crucial roles in managing Type II Diabetes, continuous insulin therapy is more common in Type I Diabetes or in specific cases of Type II Diabetes where other treatments are ineffective. Therefore, the correct answer is Continuous Insulin. Choices A, B, and C are mainstays in the treatment of Type II Diabetes, making them incorrect answers.

2. Is head lag expected to be resolved by 4 months of age? Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate?

• A. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension.
• B. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation, and stomach cramps.
• C. Drowsiness, lethargy, and fatigue.
• D. Neuropathy and tingling in the extremities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Head lag is a developmental milestone that should be resolved by 4 months of age. Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate potential developmental delays or muscle weakness. The correct answer, 'Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation, and stomach cramps,' reflects symptoms that could be associated with developmental delays or underlying health conditions. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension (Choice A) are unlikely to be directly related to head lag. Choices C and D present symptoms that are unrelated to the issue of continued head lag at 6 months of age.

3. Which of the following is an inappropriate item to include in planning care for a severely neutropenic client?

• A. Transfuse neutrophils (granulocytes) to prevent infection.
• B. Exclude raw vegetables from the diet.
• C. Avoid administering rectal suppositories.
• D. Prohibit vases of fresh flowers and plants in the client's room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Transfusing neutrophils (granulocytes) to prevent infection is inappropriate in the care of a severely neutropenic client. Neutrophils normally comprise 70% of all white blood cells and can be beneficial in a selected population of infected, severely granulocytopenic clients (less than 500/mm3) who do not respond to antibiotic therapy and who are expected to experience prolonged suppression of granulocyte production. Therefore, transfusing neutrophils is not a standard practice in caring for neutropenic clients. The other choices are appropriate in caring for a severely neutropenic client: excluding raw vegetables from the diet to reduce the risk of infections from potential pathogens, avoiding administering rectal suppositories to prevent any injury or infection due to mucosal damage, and prohibiting vases of fresh flowers and plants in the client's room to minimize the risk of exposure to environmental pathogens.

4. Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding?

• A. metastatic liver cancer
• B. gram-negative septicemia
• C. pernicious anemia
• D. iron-deficiency anemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pernicious anemia is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding. Pernicious anemia results from vitamin B12 deficiency due to a lack of intrinsic factor, leading to faulty absorption from the gastrointestinal tract. While pernicious anemia can lead to other health issues, bleeding tendencies are not a primary concern. Metastatic liver cancer (choice A) can cause liver dysfunction leading to decreased synthesis of clotting factors, increasing the risk of bleeding. Gram-negative septicemia (choice B) can lead to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) causing excessive bleeding. Iron-deficiency anemia (choice D) can result in microcytic hypochromic red blood cells, which can impair oxygen transport and lead to tissue hypoxia, but it is not directly associated with a significant potential for bleeding.

5. A one-month-old infant in the neonatal intensive care unit is dying. The parents request that the nurse administer an opioid analgesic to their infant, who is crying weakly. The infant's heart rate is 68 beats per minute, and the respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute. The infant is on room air, and the oxygen saturation is 92%. The nurse's response is based on which of the following principles?

• A. Providing analgesia during the last days and hours is an ethically appropriate nursing action.
• B. Withholding the opioid analgesia during the last days and hours is an ethical duty because administering it would represent assisted suicide.
• C. Administering analgesia during the last days and hours is the parents' ethical decision.
• D. Withholding the opioid analgesia is clinically appropriate because it will hasten the infant's death.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: All patients, regardless of age, have the right to die with dignity and be free from pain. In this case, the parents' request for an opioid analgesic to relieve the child's distress aligns with the principles of palliative care and ensuring comfort. Assisted suicide involves a conscious decision by the individual, which is not applicable to a 1-month-old infant. Both the nurse and the parents have an ethical duty to ensure the infant's comfort and well-being. Withholding opioid analgesia solely to hasten death is not appropriate, as providing pain relief is a crucial aspect of end-of-life care. Opioids can be administered to dying patients at any age to alleviate suffering without the intention of hastening death. Therefore, providing analgesia during the last days and hours is an ethically appropriate nursing action. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the decision to administer analgesia in this scenario is based on the best interest and comfort of the infant, not concerns about assisted suicide or hastening death. The ethical consideration is to provide compassionate care and alleviate suffering.

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