Nursing Elites

1. When placing an IV line in a patient with active TB and HIV, which safety equipment should the nurse wear?

• A. Sterile gloves, mask, and goggles
• B. Surgical cap, gloves, mask, and proper shoewear
• C. Double gloves, gown, and mask
• D. Goggles, mask, gloves, and gown

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When dealing with a patient with active TB and HIV, the nurse should wear goggles, a mask, gloves, and a gown to protect themselves from potential exposure to infectious agents through respiratory secretions or blood. Surgical cap and proper shoewear are not specifically required for this procedure, making option B incorrect. Double gloving is not necessary in this scenario, hence option C is incorrect. Therefore, the correct choice is D as it includes all the essential protective equipment for this situation.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with full-thickness burns to the left arm and trunk. What is the priority for this client?

• A. Pain management
• B. Airway assessment
• C. Fluid volume status monitoring
• D. Risk for infection prevention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! With full-thickness burns, there is a significant risk of fluid loss through the burn wound and fluid shift, leading to hypovolemia and shock. Monitoring and maintaining the client's fluid volume status is crucial to prevent complications like hypovolemic shock. Pain management (Option A) is essential but not the priority in this situation. While airway assessment (Option B) is crucial, it is typically assessed first in clients with respiratory distress. Preventing infection (Option D) is important but managing fluid volume status takes precedence in the initial care of a client with full-thickness burns.

3. Which client is at risk for hypomagnesemia?

• A. Client with a history of heart disease
• B. Client taking magnesium-based antacids
• C. Client with a parathyroid disorder
• D. Client admitted with alcohol abuse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the client admitted with alcohol abuse. Alcoholics tend to have poor nutrition due to decreased food intake, which is a common source of magnesium. Additionally, alcohol suppresses the release of ADH, leading to diuresis and magnesium loss. Choice A is incorrect because a history of heart disease does not directly increase the risk of hypomagnesemia. Choice B is incorrect as taking magnesium-based antacids would not put the client at risk for hypomagnesemia; in fact, it would help prevent it. Choice C is also incorrect as a parathyroid disorder is not typically associated with an increased risk of hypomagnesemia.

4. A patient has been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is not a clinical sign of diabetes mellitus?

• A. Polyphagia
• B. Polyuria
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Lower extremity edema

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Polyphagia, polyuria, and metabolic acidosis are common clinical signs of diabetes mellitus. Polyphagia refers to excessive hunger, polyuria is excessive urination, and metabolic acidosis can occur due to poorly controlled diabetes. Lower extremity edema, on the other hand, is not a typical clinical sign of diabetes mellitus. Edema in the lower extremities is more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or kidney disease rather than diabetes mellitus.

5. At what age will vision be 20/20 in children?

• A. 4 years old
• B. 5 years old
• C. 6 years old
• D. 7 years old

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 6 years old. At this age, children typically have the potential for 20/20 vision. This is considered the standard age for achieving optimal vision clarity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with the age at which children achieve 20/20 vision.

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