Nursing Elites

1. A client returns to the nursing unit post-thoracotomy with two chest tubes in place connected to a drainage device. The client's spouse asks the nurse about the reason for having two chest tubes. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that the upper chest tube is placed to:

• A. Remove air from the pleural space
• B. Create access for irrigating the chest cavity
• C. Evacuate secretions from the bronchioles and alveoli
• D. Drain blood and fluid from the pleural space

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Remove air from the pleural space.' When a client has two chest tubes in place post-thoracotomy, the upper chest tube is typically positioned to remove air from the pleural space. Air rises, so placing the tube at the top allows for efficient removal of air that has accumulated in the pleural cavity. Choice B, creating access for irrigating the chest cavity, is incorrect as chest tubes are not primarily used for irrigation. Choice C, evacuating secretions from the bronchioles and alveoli, is incorrect as chest tubes are not designed for this purpose. Choice D, draining blood and fluid from the pleural space, is also incorrect as the upper chest tube in this scenario is specifically for removing air, not blood or fluid.

2. Which of the following conditions places a client at risk for developing cirrhosis?

• A. Type I diabetes
• B. Alcoholism
• C. Leukemia
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Alcoholism places a client at risk for developing cirrhosis due to the liver damage caused by excessive alcohol consumption. Type I diabetes, leukemia, and glaucoma are not directly associated with cirrhosis. While diabetes can lead to other health complications, it does not directly cause cirrhosis. Leukemia is a type of blood cancer that does not affect the liver in a way that leads to cirrhosis. Glaucoma is an eye condition that has no direct link to cirrhosis.

3. Which type of exercises might be prescribed to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles of a client with urinary incontinence?

• A. Kegel
• B. resistance
• C. passive
• D. stretching

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Kegel. Kegel exercises are specifically designed to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, making them an effective treatment for urinary incontinence. These exercises involve contracting and relaxing the pelvic floor muscles, which helps to improve muscle tone and control. Choice B, resistance exercises, may not directly target the pelvic floor muscles as effectively as Kegel exercises. Passive exercises (Choice C) do not actively engage the muscles and are unlikely to strengthen the pelvic floor. Stretching exercises (Choice D) focus on increasing flexibility rather than muscle strength, so they are not the most appropriate for strengthening the pelvic floor muscles in the context of urinary incontinence.

4. When choosing a needle gauge for an intramuscular injection in a 12-year-old boy, which of the following gauges would you choose?

• A. 27 gauge
• B. 25 gauge
• C. 22 gauge
• D. 20 gauge

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 22 gauge. A 22-gauge needle is recommended for school-age children, toddlers, and adolescents due to their muscle mass and tolerance. In infants, a smaller gauge (23-25) is preferred as their muscles are less developed and more sensitive. Choice A, 27 gauge, is too thin for an intramuscular injection in a 12-year-old boy. Choice B, 25 gauge, is more suitable for infants than for a 12-year-old. Choice D, 20 gauge, is too thick and not typically used for intramuscular injections in children.

5. Paula is a 32-year-old woman seeking evaluation and treatment for major depressive symptoms. A major nursing priority during the assessment process includes which of the following?

• A. meaning of current stressors
• B. possibility of self-harm
• C. motivation to participate in treatment
• D. presence of alcohol or other drug use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to consider the possibility of self-harm during the assessment process. This is crucial because unless the client is first assessed for self-harm or suicide potential, the necessary degree of vigilance in the client's environment may not be observed. While understanding the meaning of current stressors is important for treatment planning, ensuring the client's safety takes precedence. Motivation to participate in treatment and the presence of alcohol or other drug use are also important aspects to assess but ensuring the client's safety is the top priority in this scenario.

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