Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is not considered one of the five rights of medication administration?

• A. client
• B. drug
• C. dose
• D. routine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The five rights of medication administration are dose, client, drug, route, and time. The correct answer is 'routine' as it is not commonly recognized as one of the essential rights in medication administration. Choice A, client, is necessary to ensure the right medication is administered to the right individual. Choice B, drug, is crucial to confirm the correct medication is given. Choice C, dose, is essential to ensure the right amount of medication is administered. Choice D, routine, is not typically included in the five rights of medication administration and is therefore the correct answer.

2. In an obstetrical emergency, which of the following actions should the nurse perform first after the baby delivers?

• A. Place extra padding under the mother to absorb blood from the delivery.
• B. Cut the umbilical cord using sterile scissors.
• C. Suction the baby's mouth and nose.
• D. Wrap the baby in a clean blanket to preserve warmth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an obstetrical emergency, the immediate priority after the baby delivers is to clear the baby's airway by suctioning the mouth and nose to ensure effective breathing. This action helps prevent potential complications like meconium aspiration. Cutting the umbilical cord, wrapping the baby in a blanket, or placing extra padding under the mother can follow once the baby's airway is clear. Therefore, suctioning the baby's mouth and nose is the most critical and time-sensitive intervention in this scenario. Placing extra padding under the mother is not the immediate priority as ensuring the baby's airway is clear. Cutting the umbilical cord and wrapping the baby in a clean blanket are important but can wait until after ensuring the baby's breathing is not compromised.

3. A client asks a nurse about the procedure for becoming an organ donor. The nurse provides the client with which information?

• A. To speak with the chaplain about the psychosocial aspects of becoming a donor
• B. That this decision must be made by the next of kin at the time of the client's death
• C. That anatomic gifts must be made in writing and signed by the client
• D. To let the health care provider know about the request so that it may be documented in the client's record

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a person wishes to become an organ donor, they need to understand that anatomic gifts must be made in writing and signed by the individual. The gift must be made by the donor themselves, typically an individual who is at least 18 years old. If the client is unable to sign, the document should be signed by another person and two witnesses. While speaking to a chaplain or informing the healthcare provider may be part of the process, the essential step is to have a written document signed by the client. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the procedural aspect of becoming an organ donor. Choice B is incorrect as the decision to make an anatomic gift is typically made by the individual themselves, not the next of kin. Choice D is incorrect as simply informing the healthcare provider is not sufficient for the procedure of becoming an organ donor; a written and signed document by the client is necessary.

4. Which sign might a healthcare professional observe in a client with a high ammonia level?

• A. coma
• B. edema
• C. hypoxia
• D. polyuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A high ammonia level can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which includes symptoms like confusion, disorientation, and can progress to coma. Coma is a severe condition of unconsciousness. Edema is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and organs, not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria is excessive urination, which is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.

5. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Secondary prevention.
• C. Tertiary prevention.
• D. Disability prevention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

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