Nursing Elites

1. When placing a Foley catheter in a female client, what is the correct order of steps?

• A. E, A, F, B, C, G, D
• B. A, E, B, F, G, D, C
• C. A, E, F, B, C, G, D
• D. E, A, F, B, C, G, D

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct order for placing a Foley catheter in a female client is as follows: E. Place the client in a supine position with flexed knees, A. Prepare the sterile field, F. Place lubricant on the catheter, B. Separate labia with the non-dominant hand, C. Clean the urinary meatus using cleansing solutions and forceps, G. Place the catheter in the meatus with the dominant (sterile) hand, and D. Inflate the catheter balloon. This sequence ensures proper hygiene, patient comfort, and reduces the risk of infection. Incorrect sequences could compromise sterility, cause discomfort, and increase the risk of infection. Therefore, the correct answer is E, A, F, B, C, G, D.

2. A graduate nurse hired to work in a medical unit of a hospital is attending an orientation session. The nurse educator, discussing care maps, asks the graduate nurse whether she understands how a care map is used. Which response indicates understanding?

• A. The care map outlines the day-to-day expected outcomes of care and the outcomes anticipated at discharge
• B. The care map is a plan that is used only by the nurse to provide client care
• C. The care map is a standard plan, rather than an individualized one, that is developed strictly by a nurse and used for a client with a particular diagnosis
• D. The care map is developed by a nurse and identifies nursing diagnoses

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A care map, also known as a critical pathway, outlines the day-to-day expected outcomes of care and the outcomes anticipated at discharge or the end of a treatment phase. It includes clinical assessments, treatments, dietary interventions, activity therapies, client education, and discharge planning. While it may identify nursing diagnoses, a care map is developed by all disciplines caring for the client type and is used by the interdisciplinary team, not just the nurse alone. Choice B is incorrect because a care map is not solely for the nurse but for the entire interdisciplinary team. Choice C is incorrect as care maps are individualized plans developed by the interdisciplinary team, not just by a nurse. Choice D is incorrect as a care map is not solely about nursing diagnoses but encompasses a comprehensive plan of care.

3. While working the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift at the long-term care unit, the nurse gathers the nursing staff to listen to the 3 to 11 p.m. intershift report. The nurse notes that a staff member has an odor of alcohol on her breath, slurred speech, and an unsteady gait, suspecting alcohol intoxication. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Contact the nursing supervisor.
• B. Tell the staff member that she is not allowed to administer medications.
• C. Ask the staff member how much alcohol she has consumed.
• D. Ask the staff member to rest in the nurses' lounge until the effects of the alcohol wear off.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a staff member reports to work showing signs of alcohol intoxication, the nurse should objectively note the symptoms and ask a second person to confirm these observations. It is crucial to contact the nursing supervisor immediately. An odor of alcohol, slurred speech, unsteady gait, and errors in judgment are indicators of intoxication, posing a risk to client safety. The staff member should be removed from the client care area. Detailed documentation of the incident is essential, including observations, actions taken, future plans, and the staff member's signature and date on the recorded incident memo. If the staff member refuses to sign, this should be noted by the nurse and a witness. Asking the staff member to rest in the nurses' lounge or restricting medication administration does not ensure client safety, as the staff member could still jeopardize it. Inquiring about the amount of alcohol consumed is confrontational and not relevant to the immediate need of ensuring safety.

4. The client has a new prosthetic hip, and the nurse is repositioning them. Which position should be avoided to prevent injury to the new prosthetic hip?

• A. abduction of the hip
• B. adduction of the hip
• C. flexing the hip at 80° flexion
• D. flexing the hip at 90°

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'adduction of the hip.' When a client has a new prosthetic hip, adduction (movement of the leg toward the midline of the body) should be avoided to prevent injury to the new prosthetic hip. Abduction (movement of the leg away from the midline) is typically allowed and may even be encouraged. Flexing the hip at certain degrees is acceptable, but adduction should be avoided to prevent complications or dislocation of the prosthetic hip. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not pose a direct risk to the new prosthetic hip compared to adduction.

5. Which of the following conditions has a severe complication of respiratory failure?

• A. Bell's palsy
• B. Guillain-Barré syndrome
• C. Trigeminal neuralgia
• D. Tetanus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Guillain-Barré syndrome is characterized by a severe complication of respiratory failure due to the involvement of the peripheral nerves that control breathing. While Bell's palsy, trigeminal neuralgia, and tetanus are also conditions affecting peripheral nerves, they do not typically lead to respiratory failure like Guillain-Barré syndrome. Bell's palsy causes facial muscle weakness, trigeminal neuralgia results in severe facial pain, and tetanus leads to muscle stiffness and spasms, but none of these conditions directly involve respiratory failure.

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