Nursing Elites

1. The nurse notes that a healthcare provider has documented the following prescription in a client's record: Furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg stat once. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administering the medication
• B. Drawing up the medication in a syringe
• C. Planning to have the nurse on the next shift administer the medication
• D. Contacting the healthcare provider

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to contact the healthcare provider. The prescription provided lacks crucial information such as the route of administration. Before administering any medication, the nurse must clarify any missing details with the provider, especially for a stat prescription that requires immediate administration. Drawing up or administering the medication without verifying the route of administration is unsafe and can lead to errors. Planning for the next shift nurse to administer the medication is not appropriate in this scenario as the stat order necessitates immediate action. Therefore, the best course of action is to contact the healthcare provider to obtain clarification on the prescription.

2. A client admitted to the hospital has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order in his medical record. The nurse understands which information about DNR orders?

• A. The only individuals who may change the DNR order are healthcare providers
• B. The DNR order can be changed if the client's condition warrants it
• C. The DNR order does not remain fixed for the duration of the client's hospitalization
• D. The DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that the DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. If the client's condition changes, the DNR order may need to be changed. For this reason, DNR orders require frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. A DNR order may be changed at any time and does not remain in effect for the duration of the client's hospitalization. The client's request regarding DNR status is the priority. Choice A is incorrect because healthcare providers, not just immediate family members, may change the DNR order based on the client's condition. Choice B is incorrect as DNR orders can be changed if the client's condition warrants it, not remaining unchanged. Choice C is incorrect as DNR orders are not fixed for the duration of hospitalization, they can be modified based on the client's needs.

3. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

• A. variable decelerations
• B. early decelerations
• C. bradycardia
• D. tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.

4. To ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort when using a rigid splint, what should be done?

• A. Place the client on a stretcher before splinting.
• B. Place the client on a long spine board before splinting.
• C. Pad the spaces between the body part and the splint.
• D. Ensure that the splint conforms to the body curves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct. When using a rigid splint, it is essential to pad the spaces between the body part and the splint to ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort. This padding helps prevent pressure points and ensures a proper fit of the splint without causing discomfort. Placing the client on a stretcher or a long spine board before splinting (choices A and B) may be necessary for transportation but does not directly relate to the proper use of a rigid splint. Ensuring that the splint conforms to the body curves (choice D) is important but not as crucial as padding the spaces to prevent discomfort and ensure proper immobilization.

5. Which of these would be an appropriate meal for a client with Celiac disease?

• A. egg noodles with cream sauce and broccoli, oat cookie, almond milk
• B. turkey sandwich with rye bread, carrots
• C. chicken and rice, apple, and tapioca pudding
• D. granola and dried apricots with cow's milk

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For individuals with Celiac disease, it's crucial to avoid gluten-containing foods. Choice C, which includes chicken, rice, apple, and tapioca pudding, is the most suitable option as all these foods are naturally gluten-free. Rice, fruits, vegetables, meat, dairy, and tapioca are all safe gluten-free options. Oats can be gluten-free if specially labeled, but many are processed on shared equipment with wheat. Granola often contains oats that may have been exposed to gluten. Dried and prepackaged fruits may contain gluten additives. Rye is a wheat derivative, and cream sauces usually contain flour as a base, making choices A and B inappropriate for individuals with Celiac disease.

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