Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is not an indication for pelvic ultrasonography?

• A. to measure uterine size
• B. to detect multiple pregnancies
• C. to measure renal size
• D. to detect foreign bodies

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pelvic ultrasonography is commonly used to assess various conditions. Choices A, B, and D are all valid reasons for performing pelvic ultrasonography. Measuring uterine size helps evaluate conditions like fibroids, while detecting multiple pregnancies is essential for prenatal care. Furthermore, identifying foreign bodies can aid in diagnosing certain conditions. However, assessing renal size is typically not a primary reason for pelvic ultrasonography, making choice C the correct answer.

2. A client expresses anxiety about having magnetic resonance imaging performed. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. "You can receive a sedative to help you relax during the test."?
• B. "There is absolutely nothing to worry about."?
• C. "There is no discomfort with this test, so don't be anxious."?
• D. "The test won't last long, so you can handle it."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response acknowledges the client's anxiety and offers a practical solution to alleviate it, showing empathy and addressing the client's concerns. Offering a sedative to help relax during the test is a proactive approach to managing the client's anxiety. Choices B and C dismiss the client's feelings by invalidating their anxiety, which can further escalate their distress. Choice D downplays the client's feelings by implying they should not be worried, which does not effectively address the client's emotional state.

3. A client with a left arm fracture complains of severe diffuse pain that is unrelieved by pain medication. On further assessment, the nurse notes that the client experiences increased pain during passive motion compared with active motion of the left arm. Based on these assessment findings, which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Contacting the health care provider
• B. Checking if it is time for more pain medication
• C. Encouraging the client to continue active range of motion exercises of the left arm
• D. Repositioning the client for comfort

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to contact the health care provider. The client with early acute compartment syndrome typically complains of severe diffuse pain that is unrelieved by pain medication. Additionally, the affected client experiences greater pain during passive motion compared to active motion. In this situation, it is crucial to notify the health care provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention. Contacting the health care provider is essential to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition. Checking for more pain medication, encouraging active range of motion exercises, or repositioning the client may not address the underlying issue of acute compartment syndrome and could delay necessary interventions. Therefore, the priority action should be to involve the healthcare provider for prompt assessment and treatment.

4. A client is told that his test is positive, but in fact, the client does not have the disease tested for. Which type of false report is this an example of?

• A. positive
• B. false positive
• C. negative
• D. false negative

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'false positive.' A false-positive result occurs when a test result is labeled positive in error, when the actual result is negative. In this scenario, the client received a positive test result incorrectly, as he does not have the disease being tested for. Choice A ('positive') is too vague and does not specify that the result was incorrect. Choice C ('negative') is the opposite of what happened in the scenario. Choice D ('false negative') refers to a situation where a test result is labeled negative incorrectly, which is not the case in this scenario.

5. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?

• A. The cause and mode of transmission are well understood.
• B. There is no known cure for the disease.
• C. When the primary lesion heals, the disease is cured.
• D. Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.

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