Nursing Elites

1. A health care provider informs a nurse that the husband of an unconscious client with terminal cancer will not grant permission for a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The health care provider tells the nurse to perform a 'slow code' and let the client 'rest in peace' if she stops breathing. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Telling the health care provider that the client would probably want to die in peace
• B. Telling the health care provider that if the client stops breathing, the health care provider will be called before any other actions are taken
• C. Telling the health care provider that all of the nurses on the unit agree with this plan
• D. Telling the health care provider that 'slow codes' are not acceptable

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse may not violate a family's request regarding the client's treatment plan. A 'slow code' is not acceptable, and the nurse should state this to the health care provider. The definition of a 'slow code' varies among health care facilities and personnel and could be interpreted as not performing resuscitative procedures as quickly as a competent person would. Resuscitative procedures that are performed more slowly than recommended by the American Heart Association are below the standard of care and could therefore serve as the basis for a lawsuit. The other options are inappropriate: Option A is speculative and does not address the issue directly; Option B does not challenge the unethical practice of a 'slow code'; Option C is irrelevant and does not address the ethical concerns raised by the health care provider's request.

2. A nurse sees another nurse changing an intravenous (IV) solution because the wrong solution is infusing into the client. The nurse who changed the IV solution does not report the error. What should the nurse who observed the error do first?

• A. Report the nurse who changed the IV solution
• B. Document the error in the client's chart
• C. Call the client's health care provider
• D. Ask the nurse whether she intends to report the error

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The first thing the nurse who observed the error should do is ask the nurse whether she intends to report the error. Ensuring client safety is paramount, and all errors must be reported to the health care provider, but this is not the initial action. The client should also be assessed immediately. The nurse who discovered the error should complete an incident report and make appropriate documentation in the client's record. If the nurse who observed the error finds out that it will not be reported, it may be necessary to involve the supervisor. Therefore, the best course of action initially is to communicate with the nurse who made the error to understand her intentions regarding reporting.

3. While assisting a healthcare provider in assessing a hospitalized client, the healthcare provider is paged to report to the recovery room. The healthcare provider instructs the nurse verbally to change the solution and rate of the intravenous (IV) fluid being administered. What is the most appropriate nursing action in this situation?

• A. Calling the nursing supervisor to obtain permission to accept the verbal prescription
• B. Asking the healthcare provider to write the prescription in the client's record before leaving the nursing unit
• C. Telling the healthcare provider that the prescription will not be implemented until it is documented in the client's record
• D. Changing the solution and rate of the IV fluid per the healthcare provider's verbal prescription

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verbal prescriptions should be avoided due to the risk of errors. If a verbal prescription is necessary, it should be promptly written and signed by the healthcare provider, typically within 24 hours. Following agency policies and procedures regarding verbal prescriptions is crucial. In this scenario, the most appropriate nursing action is to request the healthcare provider to document the prescription in the client's record before leaving the unit. Calling the nursing supervisor to accept the verbal prescription without documentation, telling the healthcare provider to delay treatment until documented, and directly changing the IV fluid based on verbal orders all pose risks and do not align with best practices in medication administration.

4. Which of these should not be included when calculating a client's fluid intake?

• A. ice chips
• B. Jell-O�
• C. pudding
• D. IV fluid from an antibiotic piggyback

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pudding is a semi-solid and does not contribute significantly to fluid intake as it does not melt at room temperature. Therefore, it should not be included in fluid intake calculations. On the other hand, ice chips, Jell-O�, and IV fluid from an antibiotic piggyback are all sources of fluid that can significantly contribute to a client's total fluid intake and should be considered when calculating it. Ice chips and Jell-O� provide hydration upon melting, while IV fluid directly adds to the fluid volume in the body.

5. Which of the following is an indication for electroencephalography?

• A. paralysis
• B. neuropathy
• C. seizure disorder
• D. myocardial infarction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'seizure disorder.' Electroencephalography is used to assess clients with seizure disorders by recording the brain's electrical activity. Seizure disorder is a primary indication for an EEG as it helps in diagnosing and managing seizure activity. Paralysis (choice A) is not typically an indication for an EEG as it relates to loss of muscle function rather than brain activity. Neuropathy (choice B) involves nerve damage and is not directly assessed by an EEG. Myocardial infarction (choice D) is related to heart issues and is not a condition that an EEG is used to diagnose.

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