Nursing Elites

1. Which situation is an example of the use of evidence-based practice in the delivery of client care?

• A. Encouraging a client who has had a stroke to consume thickened liquids and soft foods
• B. Picking up a dislodged radiation implant with long-handled forceps and placing it in a lead container to minimize radiation exposure
• C. Pouring 1 to 2 mL of sterile solution that will be used for wound cleansing into a plastic-lined waste receptacle before pouring the solution into a sterile basin
• D. Blowing on a fingerstick site to dry it after cleaning the site with an alcohol swab

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Evidence-based practice is an approach that integrates client preferences, clinical expertise, and the best research evidence to deliver quality care. Pouring sterile solution into a plastic-lined waste receptacle before using it for wound cleansing reflects evidence-based practice by preventing the entrance of harmful bacteria into the wound. Option A is incorrect because encouraging a stroke client to consume thickened liquids and soft foods is appropriate, not thin liquids and foods that pose a choking risk. Option B is incorrect as picking up a radiation implant with long-handled forceps to minimize radiation exposure is a safety measure, not evidence-based practice. Option D is incorrect because blowing on a fingerstick site after cleaning can recontaminate the site, which goes against best practices in infection control.

2. Which of the following is not an indication for pelvic ultrasonography?

• A. to measure uterine size
• B. to detect multiple pregnancies
• C. to measure renal size
• D. to detect foreign bodies

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pelvic ultrasonography is commonly used to assess various conditions. Choices A, B, and D are all valid reasons for performing pelvic ultrasonography. Measuring uterine size helps evaluate conditions like fibroids, while detecting multiple pregnancies is essential for prenatal care. Furthermore, identifying foreign bodies can aid in diagnosing certain conditions. However, assessing renal size is typically not a primary reason for pelvic ultrasonography, making choice C the correct answer.

3. A case management clinical pathway for congestive heart failure might include all of the following except:

• A. physician follow-up appointments with transportation
• B. client education regarding medication use
• C. a nutritional consult for diet review and accommodation
• D. insurance review for reimbursement

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a case management clinical pathway for congestive heart failure, the focus is on providing medical care and support to the patient. Choices A, B, and C are integral parts of managing congestive heart failure. Physician follow-up appointments with transportation ensure continuity of care, client education about medication use is crucial for adherence, and a nutritional consult helps in managing the patient's diet. However, insurance review for reimbursement is not typically part of the clinical pathway as it pertains to financial aspects and is usually handled by billing departments or external agencies. Therefore, the correct answer is 'insurance review for reimbursement.'

4. A syringe pump is a type of electronic infusion pump used to infuse fluids or medications directly from a syringe. This device is commonly used for:

• A. solutions administered in obstetrics.
• B. dilute antibiotics.
• C. large volumes of IV solutions.
• D. the neonatal and pediatric populations.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'the neonatal and pediatric populations.' Syringe pumps are commonly used in neonatal and pediatric populations because they allow for precise infusion of small volumes of medications or fluids at controlled rates. This is crucial for ensuring safety and accuracy in these delicate populations. Choice A is incorrect because syringe pumps are not limited to obstetrics; they are used in various healthcare settings. Choices B and C are incorrect because syringe pumps are not typically used for dilute antibiotics or large volumes of IV solutions. Instead, they are preferred for delivering small volumes accurately, making them ideal for neonatal and pediatric care.

5. Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?

• A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
• B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
• C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
• D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.

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