NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. Which client should be seen first by the Emergency Department nurse?
- A. A six-year-old with a femur fracture.
- B. A two-year-old with a fever of 102 degrees F.
- C. A three-year-old with wheezes in the right lower lobe.
- D. A two-year-old whose gastrostomy tube came out.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority in the emergency department is to assess and manage clients based on the severity of their condition. In this scenario, the three-year-old with wheezes in the right lower lobe should be seen first because respiratory distress takes precedence over other conditions. Wheezing indicates potential airway compromise, which requires immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. The other options are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway and breathing. A femur fracture, fever, or a dislodged gastrostomy tube can be addressed after ensuring the child with respiratory distress is stable.
2. When a person using over-the-counter nasal decongestant drops experiences unrelieved and worsening nasal congestion, what should be instructed?
- A. switch to a stronger dose of the same medication.
- B. discontinue the medication for a few weeks.
- C. continue taking the same medication, but use it more frequently.
- D. use a combination of medications for better relief.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a person using over-the-counter nasal decongestant drops experiences unrelieved and worsening nasal congestion, it is crucial to discontinue the medication for a few weeks. Prolonged use of decongestant drops can lead to rebound congestion, which is relieved by stopping the medication for a period of time. Nasal congestion occurs due to various factors like infection, inflammation, or allergy, leading to swelling of the nasal cavity. Nasal decongestants work by stimulating alpha-adrenergic receptors, causing vasoconstriction and shrinking of nasal mucous membranes. However, prolonged use can result in vasodilation, worsening nasal congestion. Switching to a stronger dose of the same medication is not recommended as it can exacerbate the issue. Continuing the same medication more frequently or using a combination of medications are also not advised and may lead to side effects. Educating individuals on proper decongestant use and potential risks of prolonged usage is essential, especially for those with specific health conditions.
3. Which of the following food selections would need to be removed from a tray for a client recovering from thyroidectomy?
- A. Fresh apple
- B. V8 juice
- C. Mustard greens
- D. Ice cream
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is a fresh apple. After a thyroidectomy, it is important to avoid hard and crunchy foods like apples due to the proximity of the esophagus to the surgical site. Apples can be difficult to chew and swallow, posing a risk of injury or discomfort to the patient. V8 juice, mustard greens, and ice cream are softer options that would be more suitable for a client recovering from thyroidectomy.
4. Is head lag expected to be resolved by 4 months of age? Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate?
- A. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension.
- B. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation, and stomach cramps.
- C. Drowsiness, lethargy, and fatigue.
- D. Neuropathy and tingling in the extremities.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Head lag is a developmental milestone that should be resolved by 4 months of age. Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate potential developmental delays or muscle weakness. The correct answer, 'Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation, and stomach cramps,' reflects symptoms that could be associated with developmental delays or underlying health conditions. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension (Choice A) are unlikely to be directly related to head lag. Choices C and D present symptoms that are unrelated to the issue of continued head lag at 6 months of age.
5. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is the drug of choice for thyroid replacement therapy in clients with hypothyroidism because:
- A. it is chemically stable, nonallergenic, and can be administered orally once a day.
- B. it is available in a wide range of concentrations to meet individual client requirements.
- C. it is a prodrug of T3.
- D. it has a long half-life.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is the preferred medication for hypothyroidism due to its chemical stability, nonallergenic properties, and convenient once-daily oral administration. It is safe and effective with minimal side effects when appropriately dosed. Choice B is incorrect because while Levothyroxine is available in various concentrations, it is not the reason it is the drug of choice; the primary reason is its stability and nonallergenic nature. Choice C is wrong as Levothyroxine (T4) is not a prodrug of T3; it is converted to T3 in the body. Option D is inaccurate because Levothyroxine has a long half-life (around 7 days), enabling once-daily dosing, as opposed to a short half-life.
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