Nursing Elites

1. Which client should be seen first by the Emergency Department nurse?

• A. A six-year-old with a femur fracture.
• B. A two-year-old with a fever of 102 degrees F.
• C. A three-year-old with wheezes in the right lower lobe.
• D. A two-year-old whose gastrostomy tube came out.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority in the emergency department is to assess and manage clients based on the severity of their condition. In this scenario, the three-year-old with wheezes in the right lower lobe should be seen first because respiratory distress takes precedence over other conditions. Wheezing indicates potential airway compromise, which requires immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. The other options are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway and breathing. A femur fracture, fever, or a dislodged gastrostomy tube can be addressed after ensuring the child with respiratory distress is stable.

2. Laboratory tests reveal the following electrolyte values for Mr. Smith: Na 135 mEq/L, Ca 8.5 mg/dL, Cl 102 mEq/L, and K 2.0 mEq/L. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the physician because of its potential risk to the client?

• A. Ca
• B. K
• C. Na
• D. Cl

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'K.' Normal serum potassium levels range between 3.5 and 5.5 mEq/L. Mr. Smith's potassium level of 2.0 mEq/L is significantly below the normal range, indicating hypokalemia, which can lead to serious risks such as cardiac arrhythmias. The levels of sodium (Na), calcium (Ca), and chloride (Cl) are within normal ranges, so they do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Therefore, the nurse should report the low potassium level to the physician for prompt intervention.

3. High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by:

• A. the inability of the kidneys to excrete the drug metabolites.
• B. rapid cell catabolism.
• C. toxic effects of the prophylactic antibiotics that are given concurrently.
• D. the altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'rapid cell catabolism.' During chemotherapy, rapid cell destruction occurs, leading to an increase in uric acid levels as a byproduct of cell breakdown. High uric acid levels are primarily a result of the rapid breakdown of cells during chemotherapy, not due to the kidneys' inability to excrete drug metabolites (Choice A). The prophylactic antibiotics given concurrently do not directly cause high uric acid levels (Choice C). The altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs (Choice D) is not a direct cause of elevated uric acid levels; the main mechanism is the rapid cell catabolism that occurs during chemotherapy.

4. An infection in a central venous access device is not eliminated by giving antibiotics through the catheter. How might bacterial glycocalyx contribute to this?

• A. It protects the bacteria from antibiotic and immunologic destruction.
• B. Glycocalyx neutralizes the antibiotic, rendering it ineffective.
• C. It competes with the antibiotic for binding sites on the microbe.
• D. Glycocalyx provides nutrients for microbial growth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bacterial glycocalyx is a viscous polysaccharide or polypeptide slime that covers microbes. It plays a significant role in protecting bacteria by enhancing adherence to surfaces, resisting phagocytic engulfment by white blood cells, and preventing antibiotics from contacting the microbe. Choice A is correct because glycocalyx shields the bacteria from both antibiotics and the immune system, allowing the infection to persist. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because glycocalyx does not neutralize antibiotics, compete for binding sites with antibiotics, or provide nutrients for microbial growth.

5. During the admission assessment for a client undergoing breast augmentation, which information should the nurse prioritize reporting to the surgeon before surgery?

• A. The client is concerned about who will care for her two children while she recovers.
• B. The client has a history of postoperative dehiscence after a previous C-section.
• C. The client's statement that her last menstrual period was 8 weeks prior.
• D. The client's concerns over pain control postoperatively.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to report to the surgeon before surgery is the client's statement that her last menstrual period was 8 weeks prior. This information is crucial as the client may be pregnant, and a pregnancy test will need to be completed before administering any anesthetic agents. Reporting this detail ensures patient safety and prevents potential risks associated with anesthesia. Choices A, B, and D are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over the need to rule out pregnancy before surgery.

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