Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a patient with COPD pulmonary exercises, what should be done?

• A. Teach pursed-lip breathing techniques.
• B. Encourage repetitive heavy lifting exercises to increase strength.
• C. Limit exercises due to respiratory acidosis.
• D. Take breaks every 10-20 minutes during exercises.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to teach pursed-lip breathing techniques. Pursed-lip breathing helps to decrease the volume of air expelled by keeping the airways open longer, making it easier for patients with COPD to breathe out. Encouraging heavy lifting exercises (Choice B) is not suitable for patients with COPD as it can lead to increased shortness of breath. Limiting exercises due to respiratory acidosis (Choice C) is not correct; instead, exercises should be tailored to the patient's tolerance. Taking breaks every 10-20 minutes (Choice D) is not specific to the management of COPD pulmonary exercises.

2. A client has chronic respiratory acidosis caused by end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Oxygen is delivered at 1 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse teaches the family that the reason for this is to avoid respiratory depression, based on which of the following explanations?

• A. COPD clients are stimulated to breathe by hypoxia.
• B. COPD clients depend on a low carbon dioxide level.
• C. COPD clients tend to retain hydrogen ions if they are given high doses of oxygen.
• D. COPD clients thrive on a high oxygen level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with COPD and chronic respiratory acidosis, they are compensating for low oxygen and high carbon dioxide levels. Hypoxia acts as the main stimulus to breathe in individuals with chronic hypercapnia. When oxygen is administered, it can decrease the respiratory drive by eliminating the hypoxic drive and reducing the stimulus to breathe. Therefore, delivering oxygen at 1 L/min via nasal cannula helps prevent respiratory depression by maintaining the hypoxic drive to breathe. The other options are incorrect: COPD clients do not depend on a low carbon dioxide level as they are chronically hypercapnic, they do not retain hydrogen ions with high oxygen doses, and they do not thrive on a high oxygen level.

3. Jane Love, a 35-year-old gravida III para II at 23 weeks gestation, is seen in the Emergency Department with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Jane reports that she has been feeling tired and has noticed ankle swelling in the evening. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 11.5 g/dL. After evaluating the situation, the nurse determines that Jane is at risk for placenta previa, based on which of the following data?

• A. anemia
• B. edema
• C. painless vaginal bleeding
• D. fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placenta previa is a disorder where the placenta implants in the lower uterine segment, causing painless bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy. The bleeding results from tearing of the placental villi from the uterine wall as the lower uterine segment contracts and dilates. It can be slight or profuse and can include bright red, painless bleeding. While anemia (choice A) may be a consequence of chronic bleeding from placenta previa, it is not a direct indicator. Edema (choice B) and fatigue (choice D) are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in pregnancy but are not specific to placenta previa.

4. A client admitted with an episode of bleeding esophageal varices is receiving propranolol (Inderal LA). The nurse knows to monitor for?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Arthralgia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Bradycardia.' Propranolol is a beta-blocking agent used to decrease the heart rate. In the case of bleeding esophageal varices, propranolol is given to reduce the risk of bleeding by keeping the heart rate around 55 beats per minute. Monitoring for bradycardia is essential as the medication's intended effect is to lower the heart rate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because propranolol would not typically cause hypertension, hyperkalemia, or arthralgia.

5. After a left heart catheterization (LHC), a client complains of severe foot pain on the side of the femoral stick. The nurse notes pulselessness, pallor, and a cold extremity. What should the nurse's next action be?

• A. Administer an anticoagulant.
• B. Warm the room and re-assess.
• C. Increase IV fluids.
• D. Notify the physician stat.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to notify the physician immediately (stat). The client's symptoms of foot pain, pulselessness, pallor, and cold extremity suggest a potential vascular complication, such as arterial occlusion. Prompt notification of the physician is crucial as this condition requires urgent intervention to restore blood flow and prevent tissue damage. Administering an anticoagulant (Choice A) without physician evaluation could be harmful as the underlying cause needs to be determined first. Warming the room and re-assessing (Choice B) may delay necessary treatment. Increasing IV fluids (Choice C) is unlikely to address the urgent vascular issue indicated by the symptoms described.

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