Nursing Elites

1. When preparing a client for platelet pheresis in the blood bank, which information is most significant to obtain during the history assessment?

• A. Allergies to shellfish
• B. Date of last platelet donation
• C. Time of last oral intake
• D. Blood type

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most significant information to gather when a client is scheduled for platelet pheresis is the date of their last platelet donation. Platelet donors can typically have their platelets apheresed as frequently as every 14 days. Knowing the date of the last donation helps ensure the client is eligible for the procedure without risking any adverse effects from frequent donations. Allergies to shellfish may be important for other procedures where anticoagulants containing heparin are used, but it is not directly related to platelet pheresis. The time of the last oral intake is more crucial for procedures requiring sedation or anesthesia. Blood type is significant for blood transfusions but is not the primary concern for platelet pheresis.

2. Why must the nurse be careful not to cut through or disrupt any tears, holes, bloodstains, or dirt present on the clothing of a client who has experienced trauma?

• A. The clothing may be potential evidence with legal implications.
• B. Such care facilitates the preservation of potential evidence.
• C. The clothing of a trauma victim can be used for further investigation.
• D. Such care maintains the integrity of the clothing for forensic analysis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of trauma, the clothing of a client can hold crucial evidence that may have legal implications. It is essential for the nurse to avoid cutting through or disrupting any tears, holes, bloodstains, or dirt present on the clothing to preserve this potential evidence. The correct answer highlights the legal importance of preserving the clothing for potential legal implications. Choice B is related but does not emphasize the legal aspect explicitly. Choice C is vague in mentioning further investigation without specifying the legal significance. Choice D focuses more on forensic analysis rather than the legal implications of preserving the clothing.

3. The client asked about the role of leptin in the body. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. It increases food intake in clients, thereby promoting obesity.
• B. It assists in the regulation of steroids.
• C. It increases the total fat mass of people who are obese.
• D. It might decrease the total fat mass in the bodies of people who are obese.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Leptin is a protein hormone expressed in fat cells that regulates fat cell percentage in the body. It is associated with increased energy expenditure and decreased food intake through hypothalamic control. In obese individuals, there may be insensitivity or resistance to leptin's effects. Leptin influences other hormones like insulin and genetic factors related to fat regulation. Therefore, the correct response is that leptin might decrease total fat mass in obese individuals as it is involved in energy balance and fat regulation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because leptin does not increase food intake or promote obesity; it does not assist in the regulation of steroids, and it does not increase total fat mass in people who are obese.

4. Paula is a 32-year-old woman seeking evaluation and treatment for major depressive symptoms. A major nursing priority during the assessment process includes which of the following?

• A. meaning of current stressors
• B. possibility of self-harm
• C. motivation to participate in treatment
• D. presence of alcohol or other drug use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to consider the possibility of self-harm during the assessment process. This is crucial because unless the client is first assessed for self-harm or suicide potential, the necessary degree of vigilance in the client's environment may not be observed. While understanding the meaning of current stressors is important for treatment planning, ensuring the client's safety takes precedence. Motivation to participate in treatment and the presence of alcohol or other drug use are also important aspects to assess but ensuring the client's safety is the top priority in this scenario.

5. A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:

• A. a maintenance dose.
• B. a loading dose.
• C. a medication with no first-pass effect.
• D. the medication to be given intravenously.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration, a loading or priming dose is ordered. This dose quickly establishes the desired drug level. It is calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose, like choice A, is used to maintain the therapeutic level after the loading dose. Waiting for steady state without a loading dose would take five drug half-lives. Choice C, a medication with no first-pass effect, does not directly address the need for rapid attainment of therapeutic levels. While intravenous administration (choice D) offers excellent bioavailability, a single dose by this route may not achieve the desired therapeutic plasma concentration as rapidly as a loading dose.

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