Nursing Elites

1. When preparing a client for platelet pheresis in the blood bank, which information is most significant to obtain during the history assessment?

• A. Allergies to shellfish
• B. Date of last platelet donation
• C. Time of last oral intake
• D. Blood type

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most significant information to gather when a client is scheduled for platelet pheresis is the date of their last platelet donation. Platelet donors can typically have their platelets apheresed as frequently as every 14 days. Knowing the date of the last donation helps ensure the client is eligible for the procedure without risking any adverse effects from frequent donations. Allergies to shellfish may be important for other procedures where anticoagulants containing heparin are used, but it is not directly related to platelet pheresis. The time of the last oral intake is more crucial for procedures requiring sedation or anesthesia. Blood type is significant for blood transfusions but is not the primary concern for platelet pheresis.

2. What is the best nursing diagnosis for a client with newly diagnosed Diabetes Mellitus?

• A. Impaired Skin Integrity
• B. Knowledge Deficit: New Diabetes Diagnosis
• C. Alteration in Nutrition: More than Body Requirements
• D. Fluid Volume Deficit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Knowledge Deficit: New Diabetes Diagnosis.' Newly diagnosed diabetics require education on their disease, medications, glucose testing, insulin injections, foot care, and sick-day plans. Choices A and D aim to prevent issues that do not currently exist for the client. Choice C, 'Alteration in Nutrition: More than Body Requirements,' is not the priority diagnosis for a newly diagnosed diabetic. While nutritional adjustments may be required for type I or type II diabetes, providing knowledge and education takes precedence at this stage.

3. What is the next step for a 64-year-old male diagnosed with COPD and CHF who shows a 10 lbs increase in total body weight over the last few days?

• A. Contact the patient's physician immediately.
• B. Check the intake and output on the patient's flow sheet.
• C. Encourage the patient to ambulate to reduce lower extremity edema.
• D. Check the patient's vitals every 2 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a patient with COPD and CHF experiencing a sudden increase in total body weight, the priority is to check the intake and output on the patient's flow sheet to evaluate fluid balance. This assessment helps determine if the weight gain is due to fluid retention, which can exacerbate CHF. Contacting the physician may be necessary based on the intake and output findings. While encouraging ambulation is beneficial for circulation, it may not address the root cause of fluid retention. Checking vitals every 2 hours is important for monitoring stability but may not pinpoint the reason behind the weight gain.

4. Which of the following statements should the nurse use to best describe a very low-calorie diet (VLCD) to a client?

• A. "This diet can be used when there is close medical supervision."?
• B. "This is a long-term treatment measure that assists obese people who can't lose weight."?
• C. "The VLCD consists of solid food items that are pureed to facilitate digestion and absorption."?
• D. "A VLCD contains very little protein."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, "This diet can be used when there is close medical supervision."? Very low-calorie diets (VLCDs) are used in the clinical treatment of obesity under close medical supervision. The diet is low in calories, high in quality protein, and has a minimum of carbohydrates to spare protein and prevent ketosis. Choice B is incorrect because VLCDs are typically short-term interventions. Choice C is incorrect because VLCDs usually consist of nutritionally complete liquid formulations, not solid food items that are pureed. Choice D is incorrect because VLCDs actually contain a high quality of protein, although the overall caloric content is very low.

5. A client is admitted to the critical care unit after suffering from a massive cerebral vascular accident. The client's vital signs include BP 160/110, HR 42, Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Based on this assessment, the nurse anticipates the client to be in which acid-base balance?

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting Cheyne-Stokes respirations, which are characterized by periods of deep breathing alternating with apnea. This pattern indicates respiratory insufficiency, resulting in an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood. The elevated BP and slow heart rate further support the respiratory insufficiency, leading to respiratory acidosis. Therefore, the correct answer is Respiratory acidosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Respiratory alkalosis is characterized by decreased carbon dioxide levels in the blood, which is not indicated by the client's presentation. Metabolic acidosis results from conditions such as renal failure or diabetic ketoacidosis and is not the primary imbalance in this case. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels, which are not present in the client's vital signs.

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