Nursing Elites

1. When planning care of a client who has been diagnosed with Amphetamine Abuse, the nurse should use the knowledge that:

• A. Amphetamines increase energy by increasing dopamine levels at neural synapses.
• B. Amphetamines have a low risk of tolerance or addiction.
• C. Amphetamines produce a 10-20-second rush followed by a 2-4-hour high.
• D. Addiction to barbiturates and amphetamines is rare because they have opposite effects.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that amphetamines increase energy by increasing dopamine levels at neural synapses. Amphetamines cause the release of norepinephrine and dopamine from storage vesicles into the synapse, leading to increased stimulation. It is important to note that clear patterns of tolerance and withdrawal have not been described with amphetamines. Choice B is incorrect as prolonged or excessive use of amphetamines can lead to psychosis, indicating a potential for addiction. Choice C is incorrect as the duration of the effects of amphetamines is typically longer than 2-4 hours. Choice D is incorrect as addiction to amphetamines is not rare; in fact, drug cravings are common and can lead to relapse, indicating a significant risk of addiction.

2. The client is taking rifampin 600mg po daily to treat his tuberculosis. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the medication?

• A. Telling the client that the medication will need to be taken with juice
• B. Telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine
• C. Telling the client to take the medication before going to bed at night
• D. Telling the client to take the medication if night sweats occur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine. Rifampin can change the color of the urine and body fluid. Teaching the client about these changes is important as the client might think this is a complication. Answer A is incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take rifampin with juice. Answer C is incorrect because rifampin should be taken at consistent times, not necessarily before going to bed. Answer D is incorrect as rifampin should be taken regularly as prescribed, not based on symptoms like night sweats.

3. During the history assessment of an 80-year-old client, which statement made by the client might indicate a possible fluid and electrolyte imbalance?

• A. "My skin is always so dry."?
• B. "I often use a laxative for constipation."?
• C. "I have always liked to drink a lot of iced tea."?
• D. "I sometimes have a problem with dribbling urine."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is "I often use a laxative for constipation." Frequent use of laxatives can lead to diarrhea and electrolyte loss, indicating a possible fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Statements A, C, and D are not directly related to fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Statement A about dry skin may suggest dehydration, but it is less specific to electrolyte imbalance than the frequent use of laxatives. Statement C about drinking a lot of iced tea could potentially relate to fluid intake, but it doesn't directly indicate an imbalance. Statement D about dribbling urine is more indicative of a potential urinary issue rather than a fluid and electrolyte imbalance.

4. The nurse is developing a care plan for a client with severe anxiety. An appropriate outcome for the client is that within 4 days the client should:

• A. Have decreased anxiety.
• B. Talk to the nurse for 10 minutes.
• C. Sit quietly for 30 minutes.
• D. Develop an adaptive coping mechanism.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When developing outcome criteria for a client with severe anxiety, it is crucial for the goals to be specific, measurable, and realistic. In this scenario, the most appropriate outcome is for the client to talk to the nurse for 10 minutes within 4 days. This goal is specific (talking for a defined duration), measurable (10 minutes), and realistic given the client's condition. Expecting a severely anxious client to sit quietly for 30 minutes is not realistic and may even exacerbate their anxiety. While developing an adaptive coping mechanism is important, it is a broader long-term goal and may not be achievable within the specified timeframe. Having decreased anxiety is a desirable outcome, but it lacks specificity and measurability, making it less suitable as an immediate goal.

5. A woman asks, "How much alcohol can I safely drink while pregnant?"? The nurse's best response is:

• A. "The amount of alcohol that is safe during pregnancy is unknown."?
• B. "Consuming one or two beers or glasses of wine a day is considered safe for a healthy pregnant woman."?
• C. "Drinking three or more drinks on any given occasion is the only harmful type of drinking during pregnancy."?
• D. "You can have a drink to help you relax and get to sleep at night."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, "The amount of alcohol that is safe during pregnancy is unknown."? It is crucial for pregnant women to avoid alcohol as there is no known safe amount during pregnancy. Consuming any amount of alcohol can harm the developing fetus and increase the risk of fetal alcohol syndrome, a condition characterized by mental and physical abnormalities in infants. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they provide misleading information that can potentially harm the fetus. Pregnant women should abstain from alcohol to ensure the health and well-being of their baby.

Similar Questions