Nursing Elites

1. While the client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which lab test should be evaluated?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Creatinine
• C. Blood glucose
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial as TPN solutions contain high amounts of glucose. This monitoring helps prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Evaluating hemoglobin (choice A) is not directly related to TPN administration. Creatinine (choice B) is more relevant for assessing kidney function. White blood cell count (choice D) is important for evaluating immune function and infection, but not specifically tied to TPN administration.

2. A nurse is teaching the mother of an 11-month-old infant how to clean the infant's teeth. The nurse tells the mother to take which action?

• A. Use a small amount of toothpaste and a soft-bristle toothbrush
• B. Use water and a cotton swab and rub the teeth
• C. Use diluted fluoride and rub the teeth with a soft washcloth
• D. Dip the infant's pacifier in maple syrup so that the infant will suck

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action when cleaning an infant's teeth is to use water and a cotton swab to gently rub the teeth. This method helps in removing any food particles or plaque buildup without the risks associated with toothpaste ingestion. Using a small amount of toothpaste and a soft-bristle toothbrush is not recommended for infants as they may swallow the toothpaste, leading to potential fluoride ingestion issues. Using diluted fluoride and rubbing the teeth with a soft washcloth is unnecessary at this age since infants typically receive fluoride through other sources like formula. Dipping the infant's pacifier in maple syrup is highly inappropriate and poses a significant risk of tooth decay due to the high sugar content, which can harm the infant's teeth.

3. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan).
• B. labetalol (Normodyne).
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
• D. thiothixene (Navane).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.

4. A client recently lost a child due to poisoning. The client tells the nurse, 'I don’t want to make any new friends right now.' This is an example of which of the following indicators of stress?

• A. emotional indicator
• B. spiritual indicator
• C. sociocultural indicator
• D. intellectual indicator

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'sociocultural indicator.' This client's reluctance to make new friends after experiencing a traumatic event like losing a child is a clear sign of sociocultural stress. Sociocultural stress can impact a person's social interactions, relationships, and cultural practices. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A, 'emotional indicator,' would focus on emotional responses directly related to stress. Choice B, 'spiritual indicator,' refers to stress related to spiritual beliefs, practices, or values, which is not evident in this scenario. Choice D, 'intellectual indicator,' is not a recognized category of stress indicators in this context.

5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

Similar Questions