Nursing Elites

1. While the client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which lab test should be evaluated?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Creatinine
• C. Blood glucose
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial as TPN solutions contain high amounts of glucose. This monitoring helps prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Evaluating hemoglobin (choice A) is not directly related to TPN administration. Creatinine (choice B) is more relevant for assessing kidney function. White blood cell count (choice D) is important for evaluating immune function and infection, but not specifically tied to TPN administration.

2. A client receiving preoperative instructions asks questions repeatedly about when to stop eating the night before the procedure. The nurse tries to refocus the client. The nurse notes that the client is frequently startled by noises in the hall. Assessment reveals rapid speech, trembling hands, tachypnea, tachycardia, and elevated blood pressure. The client admits to feeling nervous and having trouble sleeping. Based on the assessment, the nurse documents that the client has:

• A. mild anxiety.
• B. moderate anxiety.
• C. severe anxiety.
• D. a panic attack.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'severe anxiety.' In severe anxiety, a person focuses on small or scattered details and is unable to solve problems. The client's symptoms of rapid speech, trembling hands, tachypnea, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, feeling nervous, and having trouble sleeping indicate severe anxiety. Mild anxiety enhances the ability to learn and solve problems, while moderate anxiety narrows the perceptual field but allows the client to notice things brought to their attention. During a panic attack, a person is disorganized, hyperactive, or unable to speak or act, which is not the case in this scenario.

3. Which of the following clients should refrain from therapy with the thiazide diuretic hydrochlorothiazide?

• A. a client with renal impairment
• B. a client with hypertension
• C. a client with diabetes mellitus, type II
• D. a client with renal calculi (kidney stones)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a client with diabetes mellitus, type II. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause metabolic abnormalities, including elevated blood glucose levels. This increase is linked to diuretic-induced potassium deficiency, which reduces insulin secretion, leading to higher plasma glucose levels. Thiazides are commonly used in clients with renal impairment and hypertension. Moreover, thiazides decrease calcium excretion, reducing the risk of renal calculi, so it is not contraindicated for clients with kidney stones. Therefore, clients with diabetes mellitus, type II should avoid therapy with hydrochlorothiazide due to the potential adverse effects on blood glucose levels.

4. A 10-month-old child is brought to the Emergency Department because he is difficult to awaken. The nurse notes bruises on both upper arms. These findings are most consistent with

• A. wearing clothing that is too small for the child
• B. the child being shaken
• C. falling while learning to walk
• D. parents trying to awaken the child

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'the child being shaken.' Children who are shaken are frequently grasped by both upper arms, leading to bruises in that area. The presentation of a difficult-to-awaken child with bruises on the upper arms is highly concerning for non-accidental trauma, such as abusive shaking. Symptoms of brain injury associated with shaking include a decreased level of consciousness. Choices A, C, and D are less likely because the combination of a child being difficult to awaken and bruises on both upper arms is highly suggestive of non-accidental trauma rather than benign causes like ill-fitting clothing, falling while learning to walk, or parents trying to awaken the child.

5. A nurse provides information about feeding to the mother of a 6-month-old infant. Which statement by the mother indicates an understanding of the information?

• A. Meats are really important for iron, and I should start feeding meats to my infant right away.
• B. Egg white should not be given to my infant because of the risk for an allergy.
• C. I can mix the food in my infant's bottle if he won't eat it.
• D. Fluoride supplementation is not necessary until permanent teeth come in.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Egg white should not be given to my infant because of the risk for an allergy.' Egg white, even in small quantities, is not recommended for infants until the end of the first year of life due to its common allergenic potential. Choice A is incorrect because while meats are important for iron, they are not typically introduced to infants until around 6-8 months. Choice C is incorrect because food should never be mixed with formula in the bottle as it may lead to feeding difficulties and inaccurate monitoring of intake. Choice D is incorrect because fluoride supplementation may be required around 6 months depending on the infant's fluoride intake from water. Introducing solid foods like rice cereal, fruits, or vegetables is usually done around 5-6 months, following healthcare provider recommendations.

Similar Questions