Nursing Elites

1. During a well-baby check of a 6-month-old infant, the nurse notes abrasions and petechiae of the palate. The nurse should:

• A. inquire about the possibility of sexual abuse.
• B. ask about the types of foods the child is eating.
• C. request to see the type of bottle used for feedings.
• D. question the parent about objects the child plays with.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to inquire about the possibility of sexual abuse. Injuries to the soft palate such as bruising, abrasions, and petechiae can be signs of sexual abuse in infants. While oral sex may not leave significant physical evidence, these findings should raise suspicion. Option A is correct as it focuses on addressing potential abuse. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because the child's diet, the type of bottle used for feedings, and play objects are not likely related to the observed injuries. The presence of oral injuries suggests considering sexual abuse rather than other factors.

2. The client is taking rifampin 600mg po daily to treat his tuberculosis. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the medication?

• A. Telling the client that the medication will need to be taken with juice
• B. Telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine
• C. Telling the client to take the medication before going to bed at night
• D. Telling the client to take the medication if night sweats occur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine. Rifampin can change the color of the urine and body fluid. Teaching the client about these changes is important as the client might think this is a complication. Answer A is incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take rifampin with juice. Answer C is incorrect because rifampin should be taken at consistent times, not necessarily before going to bed. Answer D is incorrect as rifampin should be taken regularly as prescribed, not based on symptoms like night sweats.

3. How does the ANA define the psychiatric nursing role?

• A. a specialized area of nursing practice that employs theories of human behavior as its science and the powerful use of self as its art
• B. assisting the therapist to relieve the symptoms of clients
• C. to solve clients' problems and give them the answers
• D. having a client committed to long-term therapy with the nurse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer aligns with the ANA's definition of the psychiatric nursing role. According to the ANA, psychiatric nursing is a specialized area of nursing practice that incorporates theories of human behavior as its foundational science and utilizes the self as its essential art. This definition emphasizes the importance of understanding human behavior and leveraging therapeutic communication and relationships to provide effective care for individuals with mental health concerns. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the ANA-defined role of psychiatric nursing. Psychiatric nurses primarily focus on delivering holistic care, promoting mental health, and supporting individuals with mental health challenges using evidence-based practices and therapeutic interventions.

4. The licensed practical nurse assigned to the postpartum unit is preparing to administer Rhogam to a postpartum client. Which woman is not a candidate for RhoGam?

• A. A gravida IV para 3 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
• B. A gravida I para 1 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
• C. A gravida II para 0 that is Rh negative admitted after a stillbirth delivery
• D. A gravida IV para 2 that is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The mothers in answers A, B, and C all require RhoGam as they are Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby or have experienced a stillbirth delivery, making them candidates for RhoGam injection. The mother in answer D is the only one who does not require Rhogam because she is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby, eliminating the need for RhoGam administration.

5. The physician has ordered a culture for the client with suspected gonorrhea. The nurse should obtain which type of culture?

• A. Blood
• B. Nasopharyngeal secretions
• C. Stool
• D. Genital secretions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A culture for gonorrhea is taken from the genital secretions as gonorrhea primarily affects the genital area. The culture is incubated in a warm environment to promote the growth of Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacterium causing gonorrhea. Genital secretions provide a direct sample from the site of infection, increasing the accuracy of diagnosis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not suitable specimens for diagnosing gonorrhea. Blood cultures are used to detect bloodstream infections, nasopharyngeal secretions are collected for respiratory infections, and stool cultures are done to identify gastrointestinal infections, none of which are related to gonorrhea.

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