Nursing Elites

1. During a well-baby check of a 6-month-old infant, the nurse notes abrasions and petechiae of the palate. The nurse should:

• A. inquire about the possibility of sexual abuse.
• B. ask about the types of foods the child is eating.
• C. request to see the type of bottle used for feedings.
• D. question the parent about objects the child plays with.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to inquire about the possibility of sexual abuse. Injuries to the soft palate such as bruising, abrasions, and petechiae can be signs of sexual abuse in infants. While oral sex may not leave significant physical evidence, these findings should raise suspicion. Option A is correct as it focuses on addressing potential abuse. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because the child's diet, the type of bottle used for feedings, and play objects are not likely related to the observed injuries. The presence of oral injuries suggests considering sexual abuse rather than other factors.

2. When assessing a client with glaucoma, a nurse expects which of the following findings?

• A. Complaints of double vision
• B. Complaints of halos around lights
• C. Intraocular pressure of 15 mm Hg
• D. Soft globe on palpation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with glaucoma, a common finding is complaints of halos around lights. Other symptoms of glaucoma include loss of peripheral vision or blind spots, reddened sclera, firm globe, decreased accommodation, and occasional eye pain. Glaucoma may be asymptomatic until permanent damage to the optic nerve and retina occurs. Double vision is not a typical symptom of glaucoma. In terms of intraocular pressure, normal levels range from 10 to 21 mm Hg, making an intraocular pressure of 15 mm Hg within the normal range. A soft globe on palpation is not a typical finding in glaucoma.

3. Which of the following clients should refrain from therapy with the thiazide diuretic hydrochlorothiazide?

• A. a client with renal impairment
• B. a client with hypertension
• C. a client with diabetes mellitus, type II
• D. a client with renal calculi (kidney stones)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a client with diabetes mellitus, type II. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause metabolic abnormalities, including elevated blood glucose levels. This increase is linked to diuretic-induced potassium deficiency, which reduces insulin secretion, leading to higher plasma glucose levels. Thiazides are commonly used in clients with renal impairment and hypertension. Moreover, thiazides decrease calcium excretion, reducing the risk of renal calculi, so it is not contraindicated for clients with kidney stones. Therefore, clients with diabetes mellitus, type II should avoid therapy with hydrochlorothiazide due to the potential adverse effects on blood glucose levels.

4. When assessing a client for risk of hyperphosphatemia, which piece of information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. A history of radiation treatment in the neck region
• B. A history of recent orthopedic surgery
• C. A history of minimal physical activity
• D. A history of the client's food intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a history of radiation treatment in the neck region. Previous radiation to the neck may have damaged the parathyroid glands, which are crucial for calcium and phosphorus regulation. This damage can lead to disruptions in phosphorus levels, increasing the risk of hyperphosphatemia. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to phosphorus regulation. Orthopedic surgery, minimal physical activity, and food intake are more closely associated with calcium levels rather than phosphorus regulation. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to focus on obtaining information about a history of radiation treatment in the neck region when assessing the risk of hyperphosphatemia in a client.

5. The chemotherapeutic DNA alkylating agents such as nitrogen mustards are effective because they:

• A. cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA.
• B. have few, if any, side effects.
• C. are used to treat multiple types of cancer.
• D. are cell-cycle-specific agents.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alkylating agents, such as nitrogen mustards, are effective chemotherapeutic agents because they cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA. This cross-linking interferes with DNA replication and transcription, leading to cell death. Choice B is incorrect because alkylating agents have numerous side effects, including alopecia, nausea, vomiting, and myelosuppression. Choice C is incorrect because while nitrogen mustards are used to treat multiple types of cancer like chronic lymphocytic leukemia, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, and breast and ovarian cancer, their effectiveness is primarily due to DNA cross-linkage. Choice D is incorrect because alkylating agents are non-cell-cycle-specific agents, meaning they can act on cells in any phase of the cell cycle, not just on cells that are actively dividing.

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