NCLEX-PN
Nclex Practice Questions 2024
1. During a well-baby check of a 6-month-old infant, the nurse notes abrasions and petechiae of the palate. The nurse should:
- A. inquire about the possibility of sexual abuse.
- B. ask about the types of foods the child is eating.
- C. request to see the type of bottle used for feedings.
- D. question the parent about objects the child plays with.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to inquire about the possibility of sexual abuse. Injuries to the soft palate such as bruising, abrasions, and petechiae can be signs of sexual abuse in infants. While oral sex may not leave significant physical evidence, these findings should raise suspicion. Option A is correct as it focuses on addressing potential abuse. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because the child's diet, the type of bottle used for feedings, and play objects are not likely related to the observed injuries. The presence of oral injuries suggests considering sexual abuse rather than other factors.
2. The doctor orders 2% nitroglycerin ointment in a 1-inch dose every 12 hours. Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment includes:
- A. Rotating application sites
- B. Limiting applications to the chest
- C. Rubbing it into the skin
- D. Covering it with a thin paper dressing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment involves rotating application sites to prevent skin irritation. It should be applied to the back and upper arms, not restricted to the chest, making option B incorrect. Rubbing it into the skin, as indicated in option C, is not recommended for nitroglycerin ointment as it can lead to faster absorption and potential side effects. The correct way is to cover it with a thin paper dressing, not gauze as mentioned in option D, to ensure proper absorption and prevent the medication from evaporating too quickly.
3. When assessing a client with glaucoma, a nurse expects which of the following findings?
- A. Complaints of double vision
- B. Complaints of halos around lights
- C. Intraocular pressure of 15 mm Hg
- D. Soft globe on palpation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assessing a client with glaucoma, a common finding is complaints of halos around lights. Other symptoms of glaucoma include loss of peripheral vision or blind spots, reddened sclera, firm globe, decreased accommodation, and occasional eye pain. Glaucoma may be asymptomatic until permanent damage to the optic nerve and retina occurs. Double vision is not a typical symptom of glaucoma. In terms of intraocular pressure, normal levels range from 10 to 21 mm Hg, making an intraocular pressure of 15 mm Hg within the normal range. A soft globe on palpation is not a typical finding in glaucoma.
4. Which information obtained from the mother of a child with cerebral palsy most likely correlates to the diagnosis?
- A. She was born at 42 weeks gestation.
- B. She had meningitis when she was 6 months old.
- C. She had physiologic jaundice after delivery.
- D. She has frequent sore throats.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The diagnosis of meningitis at age 6 months correlates to a diagnosis of cerebral palsy. Cerebral palsy, a neurological disorder, is often associated with birth trauma or infections of the brain or spinal column. Answers A, C, and D are not related to the question. Gestational length (choice A) is not a direct risk factor for cerebral palsy. Physiologic jaundice (choice C) and frequent sore throats (choice D) are not typically associated with cerebral palsy.
5. A home health nurse is making preparations for morning visits. Which one of the following clients should the nurse visit first?
- A. A client with brain attack (stroke) receiving tube feedings
- B. A client with congestive heart failure complaining of nighttime dyspnea
- C. A client who had a thoracotomy 6 months ago
- D. A client with Parkinson’s disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with congestive heart failure complaining of nighttime dyspnea should be seen first as airway management is a priority in nursing care. This client's symptoms indicate potential respiratory distress, requiring immediate attention. Choices A, C, and D involve clients who are more stable and do not present with urgent or acute conditions that require immediate intervention. Choice A with a client receiving tube feedings for a stroke may require attention, but the urgency of addressing potential respiratory distress in choice B takes precedence. Choice C, a client who had a thoracotomy 6 months ago, unless presenting with acute distress, does not necessitate immediate attention. Choice D, a client with Parkinson's disease, is usually a chronic condition that does not typically require immediate intervention for the described scenario.
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