Nursing Elites

1. When planning care for a client taking Heparin, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse address first?

• A. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to the presence of a thrombus obstructing blood flow
• B. Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space
• C. Deficient knowledge related to the client's lack of understanding of the disease process
• D. Impaired skin integrity related to the development of bruises and/or hematoma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space.' When a client is taking Heparin, the primary concern is the risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Monitoring for signs of active blood loss is crucial to prevent complications like hemorrhage. While ineffective tissue perfusion, deficient knowledge, and impaired skin integrity are important, they are secondary to the immediate risk of bleeding in clients taking anticoagulants like Heparin.

2. Which client should the nurse see first?

• A. Recurring crushing chest pain
• B. Needing an IV for surgery in 5 minutes
• C. Needing PCA morphine for pain control post-hysterectomy
• D. Waiting to get back to bed after sitting in a chair for 30 minutes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client presenting with recurring crushing chest pain should be seen first as this symptom could indicate a myocardial infarction (MI), which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. Assessing and managing potential cardiac issues take priority over other concerns like needing an IV for surgery, pain control post-hysterectomy, or assistance with mobility. While all clients require care, addressing the chest pain promptly is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

3. A pregnant Asian client who is experiencing morning sickness wants to take ginger to relieve the nausea. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. "I will call your physician to see if we can start some ginger."?
• B. "We don't use home remedies in this clinic."?
• C. "Herbs are not as effective as regular medicines."?
• D. "Just eat some dry crackers instead."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to offer to consult with the physician regarding the use of ginger, showing cultural sensitivity. Ginger is known to help relieve nausea, especially in pregnancy. Choice A is the correct answer as it respects the client's preference for a home remedy and involves the physician in the decision-making process. Choice B dismisses the client's preference for a home remedy without exploring its potential benefits. Choice C makes a generalized statement discrediting the effectiveness of herbs, which is not evidence-based and disregards the client's beliefs. Choice D offers an alternative without addressing the client's specific request, failing to acknowledge the client's autonomy and cultural background.

4. While undergoing hemodialysis, the client becomes restless and tells the nurse he has a headache and feels nauseous. Which of the following complications does the nurse suspect?

• A. Infection.
• B. Disequilibrium syndrome.
• C. Air embolus.
• D. Infection.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client undergoing hemodialysis is experiencing symptoms like restlessness, a headache, and nausea. These symptoms are indicative of an air embolus, a serious complication that can occur during hemodialysis. Air embolus happens when air enters the bloodstream and can lead to symptoms like restlessness, a headache, and nausea. It is crucial for the nurse to suspect and address this complication promptly to prevent further harm to the client. Choices A and D (Infection) are less likely in this case, as the symptoms presented are more suggestive of an air embolus rather than an infection. Choice B (Disequilibrium syndrome) is also less likely as the symptoms described are not typical of this syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is C: Air embolus.

5. Chemotherapeutic agents often produce a degree of myelosuppression including leukopenia. Leukopenia does not present immediately but is delayed several days or weeks because:

• A. the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit are normal.
• B. red blood cells are affected first.
• C. folic acid levels are normal.
• D. the current white cell count is not affected by chemotherapy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Leukopenia does not present immediately after chemotherapy because time is required to clear circulating cells before the effect on precursor cell maturation in the bone marrow becomes evident. Leukopenia is characterized by an abnormally low white blood cell count. The correct answer is D because the white cell count is not immediately affected by chemotherapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to red blood cells (hemoglobin and hematocrit), which are not directly related to the delayed onset of leukopenia.

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