NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. When planning care for a client taking Heparin, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse address first?
- A. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to the presence of a thrombus obstructing blood flow
- B. Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space
- C. Deficient knowledge related to the client's lack of understanding of the disease process
- D. Impaired skin integrity related to the development of bruises and/or hematoma
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space.' When a client is taking Heparin, the primary concern is the risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Monitoring for signs of active blood loss is crucial to prevent complications like hemorrhage. While ineffective tissue perfusion, deficient knowledge, and impaired skin integrity are important, they are secondary to the immediate risk of bleeding in clients taking anticoagulants like Heparin.
2. After applying oxygen using bi-nasal prongs to a client who is having chest pain, the nurse should implement which intervention?
- A. Have the client take slow deep breaths in through their mouth and out through their nose.
- B. Post signs indicating that oxygen is in use on the client's door and in their room
- C. Apply Vaseline petroleum to both nares and 2 by 2 gauze around the oxygen tubing at the client's ears
- D. Encourage the client to hyperextend the neck, take a few deep breaths and cough.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After applying oxygen using bi-nasal prongs to a client with chest pain, it is essential for the nurse to post signs indicating that oxygen is in use on the client's door and in their room. This safety precaution alerts healthcare providers and visitors that the client is receiving oxygen therapy, reducing the risk of accidents or misunderstandings. Choice A is incorrect because instructing the client to take slow deep breaths is not the appropriate intervention after applying oxygen. Choice C suggests applying Vaseline and gauze, which is unnecessary and not a standard practice. Choice D advising the client to hyperextend the neck, take deep breaths, and cough is not indicated after applying oxygen therapy and could potentially be harmful.
3. A client admitted with an episode of bleeding esophageal varices is receiving propranolol (Inderal LA). The nurse knows to monitor for?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Arthralgia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Bradycardia.' Propranolol is a beta-blocking agent used to decrease the heart rate. In the case of bleeding esophageal varices, propranolol is given to reduce the risk of bleeding by keeping the heart rate around 55 beats per minute. Monitoring for bradycardia is essential as the medication's intended effect is to lower the heart rate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because propranolol would not typically cause hypertension, hyperkalemia, or arthralgia.
4. Clomiphene is prescribed for a female client to treat infertility. The nurse is providing information to the client and her spouse about the medication and provides the couple with which information?
- A. If the oral tablets are not successful, the medication will be administered intravenously.
- B. The couple should engage in coitus at least every other day during treatment.
- C. The physician should be notified immediately if breast engorgement occurs.
- D. Multiple births occur in a small percentage of clomiphene-facilitated pregnancies.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that multiple births (usually twins) occur in a small percentage (8% - 10%) of clomiphene-facilitated pregnancies. The couple should be informed about this potential outcome. Clomiphene is available in 50-mg tablets for oral use; there is no intravenous form of the medication. Breast engorgement is a common side effect of clomiphene that typically resolves after discontinuation of the medication. Ovulation usually happens 5 to 10 days after the last dose of clomiphene, and the couple is advised to engage in coitus at least every other day during this time. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide accurate information regarding clomiphene treatment for infertility.
5. A pregnant Asian client who is experiencing morning sickness wants to take ginger to relieve the nausea. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. "I will call your physician to see if we can start some ginger."?
- B. "We don't use home remedies in this clinic."?
- C. "Herbs are not as effective as regular medicines."?
- D. "Just eat some dry crackers instead."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to offer to consult with the physician regarding the use of ginger, showing cultural sensitivity. Ginger is known to help relieve nausea, especially in pregnancy. Choice A is the correct answer as it respects the client's preference for a home remedy and involves the physician in the decision-making process. Choice B dismisses the client's preference for a home remedy without exploring its potential benefits. Choice C makes a generalized statement discrediting the effectiveness of herbs, which is not evidence-based and disregards the client's beliefs. Choice D offers an alternative without addressing the client's specific request, failing to acknowledge the client's autonomy and cultural background.
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