NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. When planning care for a client taking Heparin, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse address first?
- A. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to the presence of a thrombus obstructing blood flow
- B. Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space
- C. Deficient knowledge related to the client's lack of understanding of the disease process
- D. Impaired skin integrity related to the development of bruises and/or hematoma
Correct answer: Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space.' When a client is taking Heparin, the primary concern is the risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Monitoring for signs of active blood loss is crucial to prevent complications like hemorrhage. While ineffective tissue perfusion, deficient knowledge, and impaired skin integrity are important, they are secondary to the immediate risk of bleeding in clients taking anticoagulants like Heparin.
2. Which of these statements from the caregiver of a palliative care client indicates a proper understanding?
- A. This treatment plan usually indicates a prognosis of less than 6 months.
- B. We will need to stay in the hospital to receive this level of care.
- C. The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.
- D. The medications to treat the underlying disease will be continued.
Correct answer: The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.
Rationale: The correct answer is 'The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.' This statement reflects a proper understanding of palliative care, which focuses on improving the patient's quality of life and providing comfort. It does not necessarily mean a prognosis of less than 6 months or require hospitalization. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care can be provided regardless of the prognosis. Choice B is wrong as palliative care can be administered in various settings, not just hospitals. Choice D is inaccurate as palliative care aims to improve symptoms and quality of life, so medications may be adjusted but not necessarily stopped.
3. A 10-month-old child is brought to the Emergency Department because he is difficult to awaken. The nurse notes bruises on both upper arms. These findings are most consistent with:
- A. wearing clothing that is too small for the child.
- B. the child being shaken.
- C. falling while learning to walk.
- D. parents trying to awaken the child.
Correct answer: the child being shaken.
Rationale: The correct answer is 'the child being shaken.' In cases of suspected child abuse, bruises on both upper arms can be indicative of a child being shaken, as children who are shaken are frequently grasped by both upper arms. The presentation of a 10-month-old child being difficult to awaken, along with bruises on the upper arms, raises concern for inflicted injury. Symptoms of brain injury associated with shaking include a decreased level of consciousness. Choices A, C, and D are less likely in this scenario as they do not align with the concerning signs of suspected abuse indicated by the bruises and the child's altered level of consciousness.
4. The nurse observes a nursing assistant performing AM care for a client with a new leg cast. Which action by the assistant will the nurse intervene?
- A. Lifting the affected leg with the palms of the hands
- B. Covering the affected leg with a blanket to avoid chills
- C. Placing plastic over the groin prior to bathing
- D. Elevating the casted leg on two pillows
Correct answer: Covering the affected leg with a blanket to avoid chills
Rationale: The correct answer is to intervene when the assistant covers the affected leg with a blanket to avoid chills. A new cast should not be covered to allow the heat from the cast to evaporate, preventing complications. Lifting the affected leg with the palms of the hands is appropriate for proper handling. Placing plastic over the groin prior to bathing is a standard practice to protect the client's privacy and maintain hygiene. Elevating the casted leg on two pillows helps reduce swelling and promote circulation, making it a suitable action.
5. When discussing possible complications of pregnancy with a client, the nurse should explain that all of the following are symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following is least indicative of UTI during pregnancy?
- A. low back pain
- B. urinary frequency
- C. GI distress
- D. malaise
Correct answer: urinary frequency
Rationale: Urinary frequency is least indicative of UTI during pregnancy. It is a common minor discomfort of pregnancy caused by pressure of the growing uterus on the bladder. As the uterus rises in the second trimester, there are usually no problems. Frequency may return in the third trimester when the uterus drops into the pelvic cavity. UTI symptoms include low back pain, suprapubic discomfort, and malaise, and are confirmed by laboratory findings. Low back pain, GI distress, and malaise are more closely associated with UTI during pregnancy compared to urinary frequency.
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