Nursing Elites

1. A patient has just been prescribed Minipress to control hypertension. The nurse should instruct the patient to be observant of the following:

• A. Dizziness and light-headed sensations
• B. Weight gain
• C. Sensory changes in the lower extremities
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Dizziness and light-headed sensations.' Minipress, a medication used to control hypertension, can cause hypotension as a side effect. Dizziness and light-headed sensations are common symptoms of hypotension. Weight gain, sensory changes in the lower extremities, and fatigue are not typically associated with Minipress or hypertension management. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.

2. A client returns to the nursing unit post-thoracotomy with two chest tubes in place connected to a drainage device. The client's spouse asks the nurse about the reason for having two chest tubes. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that the upper chest tube is placed to:

• A. Remove air from the pleural space
• B. Create access for irrigating the chest cavity
• C. Evacuate secretions from the bronchioles and alveoli
• D. Drain blood and fluid from the pleural space

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Remove air from the pleural space.' When a client has two chest tubes in place post-thoracotomy, the upper chest tube is typically positioned to remove air from the pleural space. Air rises, so placing the tube at the top allows for efficient removal of air that has accumulated in the pleural cavity. Choice B, creating access for irrigating the chest cavity, is incorrect as chest tubes are not primarily used for irrigation. Choice C, evacuating secretions from the bronchioles and alveoli, is incorrect as chest tubes are not designed for this purpose. Choice D, draining blood and fluid from the pleural space, is also incorrect as the upper chest tube in this scenario is specifically for removing air, not blood or fluid.

3. A patient asks a nurse the following question: Exposure to TB can be best identified with which of the following procedures?

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Mantoux test
• C. Breath sounds examination
• D. Sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Mantoux test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, is the most appropriate and accurate test to identify exposure to TB. This test involves injecting a small amount of PPD tuberculin under the top layer of the skin, and a positive reaction indicates exposure to the TB bacteria. Choice A, a chest x-ray, is useful for detecting active TB disease but not exposure. Choice C, a breath sounds examination, is not a specific test for TB exposure. Choice D, a sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is used to diagnose active TB infection rather than exposure.

4. A nurse is weighing a breastfed 6-month-old infant who has been brought to the pediatrician's office for a scheduled visit. The infant's weight at birth was 6 lb 8 oz. The nurse notes that the infant now weighs 13 lb. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Tell the mother to decrease the daily number of feedings because the weight gain is excessive.
• B. Tell the mother that the infant's weight is increasing as expected.
• C. Tell the mother that the infant should continue with breast milk as the weight gain is adequate.
• D. Tell the mother that semisolid foods should not be introduced until the infant's weight stabilizes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the mother that the infant's weight gain is normal. Infants typically double their birth weight by 6 months, which is precisely the case here, with the infant's weight increasing from 6 lb 8 oz to 13 lb. This weight gain indicates healthy growth and development. Therefore, there is no need to decrease feedings. The infant should continue with breast milk as it is providing adequate nutrition. Additionally, introducing semisolid foods is usually recommended between 4 and 6 months of age, so there is no indication to delay based on the infant's weight gain.

5. The nurse is teaching a community health class for cancer prevention and screening. Which individual has the highest risk for colon cancer?

• A. Client with irritable bowel syndrome
• B. Family history of colon polyps
• C. Client with cirrhosis of the liver
• D. History of colon surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A family history of colon polyps and/or colon cancer is a significant risk factor for developing colon cancer. Individuals with a family history are more likely to develop colon cancer due to genetic predisposition. While other factors like irritable bowel syndrome, cirrhosis of the liver, and history of colon surgery may contribute to an increased risk of colon cancer, having a family history of colon polyps is the highest risk factor. Irritable bowel syndrome does not directly increase the risk of colon cancer. Cirrhosis of the liver is associated with liver cancer rather than colon cancer. A history of colon surgery may reduce the risk of colon cancer in some cases by removing precancerous polyps.

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