Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is obtaining a health assessment from the preoperative client scheduled for hip replacement surgery. Which statement by the client would be most important for the nurse to report to the physician?

• A. "I had chickenpox when I was 8 years old."?
• B. "I had rheumatic fever when I was 10 years old."?
• C. "I have a strong family history of gastric cancer."?
• D. "I have pain in my hip with any movement."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important statement for the nurse to report to the physician is that the client had rheumatic fever when they were 10 years old. This information is crucial as individuals who have had rheumatic fever require pre-medication with antibiotics before any surgical or dental procedure to prevent bacterial endocarditis. Reporting this history ensures the client's safety during the hip replacement surgery. The other options, such as having chickenpox in the past, a family history of gastric cancer, or experiencing hip pain, are important for the client's overall health assessment but do not have the same immediate implications for the upcoming surgery as the history of rheumatic fever.

2. A client comes to the clinic for assessment of his physical status and guidelines for starting a weight-reduction diet. The client's weight is 216 pounds and his height is 66 inches. The nurse identifies the BMI (body mass index) as:

• A. within normal limits, so a weight-reduction diet is unnecessary
• B. lower than normal, so education about nutrient-dense foods is needed
• C. indicating obesity because the BMI is 35
• D. indicating overweight status because the BMI is 27

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obesity is defined by a BMI of 30 or more with no co-morbid conditions. It is calculated by utilizing a chart or nomogram that plots height and weight. This client's BMI is 35, indicating obesity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the client's BMI is above 30, which falls under the obesity category. Therefore, a weight-reduction diet and increased physical activity are necessary to address the client's weight status and promote overall health.

3. A 3-day post-operative client with a Left Knee Replacement is complaining of being chilled and nauseated. Her TPR is 100.4-94-28 and Blood Pressure is 146/90. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Call the surgeon immediately.
• B. Administer Extra Strength Tylenol per orders.
• C. Assess the surgical site.
• D. Offer extra blankets and increase fluids.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to call the surgeon immediately. The client's symptoms of being chilled and nauseated, along with an elevated temperature (100.4�F), could indicate an infection following the knee replacement surgery. In this scenario, prompt action is crucial to prevent any potential complications. Calling the surgeon allows for further assessment, possible diagnostic tests, and appropriate interventions to be initiated. Administering Tylenol or offering blankets and fluids may temporarily alleviate symptoms but do not address the underlying issue of a potential infection. Assessing the surgical site is important but not as urgent as involving the surgeon in this situation.

4. A patient has suffered a left CVA and developed severe hemiparesis resulting in a loss of mobility. The nurse notices on assessment that an area over the patient's left elbow appears as non-blanchable erythema, and the skin is intact. The nurse should score the patient as having which of the following?

• A. Stage I pressure ulcer
• B. Stage II pressure ulcer
• C. Stage III pressure ulcer
• D. Stage IV pressure ulcer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythema with the skin intact is characteristic of a Stage I pressure ulcer. At this stage, the skin is not broken, but there is localized redness that does not blanch when pressed. Stage II pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss, Stage III pressure ulcers have full-thickness skin loss, and Stage IV pressure ulcers extend to deeper tissues, including muscle and bone. In this case, the non-blanchable erythema with intact skin aligns with the characteristics of a Stage I pressure ulcer.

5. A mother brings her 13-month-old child with Down Syndrome to a pediatric clinic reporting muscle weakness and poor movement. The child's reflexes are noted to be diminished. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Contact the physician immediately
• B. Have the patient go for an X-ray for a c-spine work-up
• C. Start an IV on the patient
• D. Position the child's neck in a neutral position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a child with Down Syndrome presenting with muscle weakness and diminished reflexes, an atlanto-axial dislocation is a concern. The priority action is to position the child's neck in a neutral c-spine posture to prevent further injury. This should be done before any movement or manipulation. Contacting the physician should follow to ensure appropriate evaluation and management. Initiating an IV is not indicated unless specifically ordered for a medical reason. Ordering an X-ray for a c-spine work-up should not be the first action as it may involve movement that could exacerbate the condition if an injury is present.

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