Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is obtaining a health assessment from the preoperative client scheduled for hip replacement surgery. Which statement by the client would be most important for the nurse to report to the physician?

• A. "I had chickenpox when I was 8 years old."?
• B. "I had rheumatic fever when I was 10 years old."?
• C. "I have a strong family history of gastric cancer."?
• D. "I have pain in my hip with any movement."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important statement for the nurse to report to the physician is that the client had rheumatic fever when they were 10 years old. This information is crucial as individuals who have had rheumatic fever require pre-medication with antibiotics before any surgical or dental procedure to prevent bacterial endocarditis. Reporting this history ensures the client's safety during the hip replacement surgery. The other options, such as having chickenpox in the past, a family history of gastric cancer, or experiencing hip pain, are important for the client's overall health assessment but do not have the same immediate implications for the upcoming surgery as the history of rheumatic fever.

2. A 13-year-old girl is admitted to the ER with lower right abdominal discomfort. What should the admitting nurse do first?

• A. Administer Loritab to the patient for pain relief.
• B. Place the patient in a right sidelying position for pressure relief.
• C. Start a Central Line.
• D. Provide pain reduction techniques without administering medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a case of lower right abdominal discomfort, the first step should be to provide pain reduction techniques without administering medication. Administering pain medication or starting a central line should not be done without medical orders. Placing the patient in a right sidelying position may help with pressure relief, but addressing pain reduction techniques without medication is the initial priority in this scenario. It is essential to assess the patient further, consult with a healthcare provider, and follow the appropriate protocols before administering any medication or invasive procedures like starting a central line.

3. A month after receiving a blood transfusion, an immunocompromised client develops fever, liver abnormalities, a rash, and diarrhea. The nurse should suspect this client has:

• A. no relation to the blood transfusion.
• B. graft-versus-host disease (GVHD).
• C. myelosuppression.
• D. an allergic reaction to a recent medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of fever, liver abnormalities, rash, and diarrhea in an immunocompromised client a month after a blood transfusion are indicative of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD). GVHD occurs when white blood cells in donor blood attack the tissues of an immunocompromised recipient. This process can manifest within a month of the transfusion. While choices 1 and 4 are plausible, it is crucial for the nurse to consider the possibility of GVHD in immunocompromised transfusion recipients due to the significant risk. Myelosuppression, choice C, typically presents with decreased blood cell counts and is not consistent with the symptoms described. An allergic reaction to medication, choice D, would present with different manifestations such as itching, hives, or anaphylaxis, which are not described in the scenario.

4. How can a nurse recognize that a chronic renal failure client's AV shunt is patent?

• A. Absence of a bruit
• B. Presence of a thrill
• C. Blood return from the shunt
• D. Urine output greater than 30 ml/hr

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct assessment to determine the patency of an AV shunt in a chronic renal failure client is the presence of a thrill. A thrill is a vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the shunt site, indicating good blood flow through the shunt. While the presence of a bruit is also important for assessing an AV shunt, a thrill is a more specific indicator of patency. Blood return from the shunt is related to cannulation and not necessarily an indicator of patency. Urine output greater than 30 ml/hr is not directly related to the assessment of an AV shunt's patency.

5. On morning rounds, the nurse finds a somnolent client with a Blood glucose of 89 mg/dL. A sulfonurea and a proton pump inhibitor are scheduled to be administered. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats
• B. Hold medications and notify the physician
• C. Arouse the client and give some orange juice with sugar packets added
• D. Give the medications as ordered and re-check blood sugar in one hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Sulfonureas should be held for blood glucose levels below 100 mg/dL until the client has food to prevent hypoglycemia. Giving the proton pump inhibitor is appropriate and does not need to be delayed. Option B is incorrect because holding both medications without taking appropriate action may lead to further complications. Option C is not the best choice as it does not address the need to hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Option D is incorrect because administering the medications without ensuring the client eats may lead to hypoglycemia.

Similar Questions