NCLEX NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The nurse is obtaining a health assessment from the preoperative client scheduled for hip replacement surgery. Which statement by the client would be most important for the nurse to report to the physician?
- A. “I had chickenpox when I was 8 years old.”
- B. “I had rheumatic fever when I was 10 years old.”
- C. “I have a strong family history of gastric cancer.”
- D. “I have pain in my hip with any movement.”
Correct answer: “I had rheumatic fever when I was 10 years old.”
Rationale: The most important statement for the nurse to report to the physician is that the client had rheumatic fever when they were 10 years old. This information is crucial as individuals who have had rheumatic fever require pre-medication with antibiotics before any surgical or dental procedure to prevent bacterial endocarditis. Reporting this history ensures the client's safety during the hip replacement surgery. The other options, such as having chickenpox in the past, a family history of gastric cancer, or experiencing hip pain, are important for the client's overall health assessment but do not have the same immediate implications for the upcoming surgery as the history of rheumatic fever.
2. A nurse discharge planner is preparing a client for discharge from an acute care setting. The nurse assesses that skilled home care services are clinically indicated. This assessment is based on all of the following indicators except:
- A. the client has been admitted to the hospital three times in the last 2 months.
- B. the client has a Foley catheter.
- C. the client’s family is available to care for him 24 hours a day.
- D. the client is ordered to continue IV antibiotics 5 days post discharge.
Correct answer: the client’s family is available to care for him 24 hours a day
Rationale: Family availability to provide care and assistance is not an indicator for skilled home care services. In fact, the nurse might see an opportunity for family education to meet the client’s needs so that less community support is needed. This should be discussed and negotiated with the family. Frequent hospital readmissions indicate that the client has not been able to manage either due to condition instability or lack of care needs being met, which is a red flag for home care services to monitor and meet those needs appropriately. A Foley catheter requires home health care due to infection potential and care requirements. IV antibiotics also necessitate home care for maintaining line patency and assessing the site.
3. After group therapy, the female victim of intimate partner violence confides to the nurse that she does not feel in any immediate danger. Which of the following statements about victims of domestic violence is true?
- A. Victims of domestic violence are often the best predictors of their risk of harm.
- B. Victims of domestic violence often overestimate their safety risk.
- C. Victims of domestic violence are typically in a state of denial.
- D. Victims of domestic violence know that keeping peace with their partner is the best method of preventing another attack.
Correct answer: Victims of domestic violence are often the best predictors of their risk of harm.
Rationale: Victims of domestic violence are often correct at predicting their risk of harm. It is crucial for the nurse to ensure that the client is expressing herself authentically and not downplaying any potential danger. While victims can be insightful about their risk, it's essential to involve proper authorities, such as the police, in situations of intimate partner violence to ensure safety and provide necessary support. Choice B is incorrect because victims may not necessarily overestimate their safety risk. Choice C is incorrect as not all victims are in a state of denial; some may recognize the dangers they face. Choice D is incorrect because victims may not believe that keeping peace with their partner is the best way to prevent future attacks, as each individual's situation and mindset vary.
4. A nursing assistant who has been employed in the long-term care center for 8 weeks is consistently taking extended lunch breaks. The nursing assistant’s behavior has caused problems with client care during lunch hours. What is the appropriate way for the nurse to deal with this situation?
- A. Ignoring the situation
- B. Documenting the problem in the nursing assistant’s personnel file
- C. Asking other staff members to cover for the nursing assistant
- D. Meeting with the nursing assistant to discuss the behavior and initiate problem-solving measures
Correct answer: Meeting with the nursing assistant to discuss the behavior and initiate problem-solving measures
Rationale: Taking extended lunch breaks is an unacceptable behavior, especially when it affects client care. The appropriate way for the nurse to deal with this situation is to meet with the nursing assistant to discuss the behavior and initiate problem-solving measures. This direct approach allows for open communication and the opportunity to address the issue effectively. Ignoring the situation (Choice A), asking other staff members to cover (Choice C), or documenting the problem in the nursing assistant’s personnel file (Choice B) are not effective solutions. Ignoring the behavior does not address the issue, asking others to cover may not solve the problem at its root, and documenting the problem should come after attempting to resolve the issue through communication and problem-solving first.
5. A client is admitted for observation following an unrestrained motor vehicle accident. A bystander stated that he lost consciousness for 1-2 minutes. On admission, the client’s Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) was 14. The GCS is now 12. The nurse should:
- A. Re-assess in 15 minutes
- B. Stimulate the client with a sternal rub
- C. Administer Tylenol with codeine for a headache
- D. Notify the physician
Correct answer: Notify the physician
Rationale: A decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score from 14 to 12 indicates a significant neurological change in the client's condition. This change can be indicative of a deterioration in the client's neurological status, possibly due to intracranial bleeding or swelling. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the physician immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention. Re-assessing in 15 minutes or stimulating the client with a sternal rub are not appropriate actions in this situation as they do not address the underlying cause of the decrease in GCS. Administering Tylenol with codeine for a headache is also not recommended without further assessment and evaluation of the client's condition.
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