Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is obtaining a health assessment from the preoperative client scheduled for hip replacement surgery. Which statement by the client would be most important for the nurse to report to the physician?

• A. "I had chickenpox when I was 8 years old."?
• B. "I had rheumatic fever when I was 10 years old."?
• C. "I have a strong family history of gastric cancer."?
• D. "I have pain in my hip with any movement."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important statement for the nurse to report to the physician is that the client had rheumatic fever when they were 10 years old. This information is crucial as individuals who have had rheumatic fever require pre-medication with antibiotics before any surgical or dental procedure to prevent bacterial endocarditis. Reporting this history ensures the client's safety during the hip replacement surgery. The other options, such as having chickenpox in the past, a family history of gastric cancer, or experiencing hip pain, are important for the client's overall health assessment but do not have the same immediate implications for the upcoming surgery as the history of rheumatic fever.

2. The chemotherapeutic agent 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) is ordered for a client as an adjunct measure to surgery. Which statement about chemotherapy is true?

• A. It is a local treatment affecting only tumor cells.
• B. It is a systemic treatment affecting both tumor and normal cells.
• C. It has not yet been proven an effective treatment for cancer.
• D. It is often the drug of choice because it causes few, if any, side effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that chemotherapy is a systemic treatment affecting both tumor and normal cells. 5-FU, as an antimetabolic drug, inhibits DNA synthesis and interferes with cell replication systemically. It affects all rapidly growing cells, including malignant and normal ones. This drug is used as adjuvant therapy for various cancers. Choice A is incorrect because chemotherapy affects both tumor and normal cells, not just tumor cells. Choice C is incorrect as chemotherapy has been proven effective in treating cancer. Choice D is incorrect because chemotherapy often causes side effects like bone marrow depression, anorexia, stomatitis, nausea, and vomiting.

3. A patient 3 hours post-op from a hysterectomy is complaining of intense pain at the incision site. When assessing the patient, the nurse notes a BP of 169/93, pulse 145 bpm, and regular. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Reassure the patient that pain is normal following surgery.
• B. Administer prn Nifedipine and assess the client's response.
• C. Administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response.
• D. Recheck BP and pulse rate every 20 minutes for the next hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response. A BP of 169/93 and a pulse of 145 bpm indicate pain-related hypertension and sinus tachycardia, which are physiological responses to pain. Treating the cause of the increased pulse rate requires pain medication. Reassuring the patient about normal post-surgery pain is important, but addressing the physiological responses to pain is a priority. Administering Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is not indicated for pain management but for hypertension. Rechecking the BP and pulse rate without addressing the pain directly does not address the underlying issue causing the elevated vital signs.

4. For which adverse effect of the block does the postpartum nurse monitor the woman after receiving a subarachnoid (spinal) block for a cesarean delivery?

• A. Headache
• B. Pruritus
• C. Vomiting
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Headache.' Postdural headache is a common adverse effect associated with a subarachnoid block due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage at the site of dural puncture. This headache worsens when the woman is upright and may improve when she lies flat. To manage this headache, bed rest and adequate hydration are recommended. Pruritus, vomiting, and hypertension are not typically associated with subarachnoid blocks. Pruritus, nausea, and vomiting are more commonly linked to the use of intrathecal opioids.

5. A client with stress incontinence should be advised:

• A. to avoid relying solely on absorbent undergarments.
• B. that Kegel exercises might help.
• C. that effective surgical treatments are available.
• D. that behavioral therapy can be beneficial.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kegel exercises, which involve tightening and releasing the pelvic floor muscles, can be beneficial for stress incontinence by strengthening the muscles that control urination. Choice A is incorrect as it is important for the client to know that absorbent undergarments can be used as a temporary solution but do not address the underlying issue. Choice C is incorrect as while surgical treatments are available, they are usually considered when conservative treatments like exercises and behavioral therapy have not been successful. Choice D is incorrect as behavioral therapy can be beneficial in managing stress incontinence through lifestyle and dietary modifications, bladder training, and more, contrary to the statement that it is ineffective.

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