Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client for risk of hyperphosphatemia, which piece of information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. A history of radiation treatment in the neck region
• B. A history of recent orthopedic surgery
• C. A history of minimal physical activity
• D. A history of the client's food intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a history of radiation treatment in the neck region. Previous radiation to the neck may have damaged the parathyroid glands, which are crucial for calcium and phosphorus regulation. This damage can lead to disruptions in phosphorus levels, increasing the risk of hyperphosphatemia. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to phosphorus regulation. Orthopedic surgery, minimal physical activity, and food intake are more closely associated with calcium levels rather than phosphorus regulation. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to focus on obtaining information about a history of radiation treatment in the neck region when assessing the risk of hyperphosphatemia in a client.

2. A 6-year-old with cerebral palsy functions at the level of an 18-month-old. Which finding would support that assessment?

• A. She dresses herself
• B. She pulls a toy behind her
• C. She can build a tower of eight blocks
• D. She can copy a horizontal or vertical line

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'She pulls a toy behind her.' This behavior is consistent with the developmental stage of an 18-month-old who enjoys push-pull toys. Dressing oneself usually begins around 3 years old, building a tower of eight blocks at approximately 3 years old, and copying a horizontal or vertical line at about 4 years old. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they represent skills that are typically observed in older children.

3. The client is scheduled for a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis. Which medication should be kept available during the test?

• A. Atropine sulfate
• B. Furosemide
• C. Prostigmin
• D. Promethazine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis, Atropine sulfate should be kept available as it is the antidote for Tensilon and is administered to manage cholinergic crises that may occur during the test. Atropine sulfate helps counteract the excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system caused by Tensilon. Furosemide (choice B) is a diuretic and not related to managing Tensilon-induced crises. Prostigmin (choice C) is used to treat Myasthenia Gravis itself, not for managing the effects of Tensilon. Promethazine (choice D) is an antiemetic and antianxiety agent, which is not necessary for a Tensilon test. Therefore, Atropine sulfate (choice A) is the correct medication to have available during a Tensilon test, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this context.

4. The client with diabetes is preparing for discharge. During discharge teaching, the nurse assesses the client's ability to care for himself. Which statement made by the client would indicate a need for follow-up after discharge?

• A. "I live by myself."?
• B. "I have trouble seeing."?
• C. "I have a cat in the house with me."?
• D. "I usually drive myself to the doctor."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with diabetes who has trouble seeing would require follow-up after discharge. The lack of visual acuity for the client preparing and injecting insulin might require help. Answers A, C, and D will not prevent the client from being able to care for himself and are incorrect. Living alone (Choice A) does not necessarily indicate a need for follow-up unless there are specific concerns. Having a cat at home (Choice C) and driving to the doctor (Choice D) are not direct indicators of the client's ability to care for himself.

5. Why is the intravenous route potentially the most dangerous route of drug administration?

• A. IV infiltration may occur.
• B. it allows for rapid administration of a drug.
• C. rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity
• D. it is the most commonly used route in hospitals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity. When a drug is administered intravenously, it has 100% bioavailability, entering the bloodstream immediately and increasing the risk of toxicity if not carefully monitored. While IV infiltration (choice A) can cause tissue damage, it is not typically life-threatening. Choice B is incorrect as the speed of administration is not the primary reason for the danger; it is the immediate and full dose reaching the bloodstream. Choice D is incorrect as the popularity of the route does not inherently make it more dangerous.

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