Nursing Elites

1. A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency room with a piece of metal in his eye. Which action by the nurse is correct?

• A. Use a magnet to remove the object.
• B. Rinse the eye thoroughly with saline.
• C. Cover both eyes with paper cups.
• D. Administer eye drops immediately.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Covering both eyes with paper cups is the correct action as it helps prevent consensual movement of the affected eye. Attempting to remove the object with a magnet might cause trauma, making choice A incorrect. While rinsing the eye with saline may be necessary, it should be ordered by a doctor and is not the initial action for the nurse, making choice B incorrect. Administering eye drops immediately, as in choice D, is not appropriate in this scenario and does not address the primary concern of preventing further damage by limiting eye movement.

2. The nurse is assisting the RN with discharge instructions for a client with an implantable defibrillator. What discharge instruction is essential?

• A. "You can eat food prepared in a microwave."?
• B. "You should avoid moving the shoulder on the side of the defibrillator site for 6 weeks."?
• C. "You should use your cellphone on your right side."?
• D. "You will be able to fly on a commercial airliner with the defibrillator in place."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The essential discharge instruction for a client with an implantable defibrillator is to use any battery-operated machinery on the opposite side, including cellphones. This is to prevent interference with the device. Additionally, the client should monitor their pulse rate and report any dizziness or fainting, which could indicate issues with the defibrillator. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because clients with implantable defibrillators can eat food prepared in the microwave, move their shoulder on the affected side after the initial healing period, and are allowed to fly on commercial airliners with the defibrillator in place.

3. The client is scheduled for a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis. Which medication should be kept available during the test?

• A. Atropine sulfate
• B. Furosemide
• C. Prostigmin
• D. Promethazine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis, Atropine sulfate should be kept available as it is the antidote for Tensilon and is administered to manage cholinergic crises that may occur during the test. Atropine sulfate helps counteract the excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system caused by Tensilon. Furosemide (choice B) is a diuretic and not related to managing Tensilon-induced crises. Prostigmin (choice C) is used to treat Myasthenia Gravis itself, not for managing the effects of Tensilon. Promethazine (choice D) is an antiemetic and antianxiety agent, which is not necessary for a Tensilon test. Therefore, Atropine sulfate (choice A) is the correct medication to have available during a Tensilon test, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this context.

4. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

5. A 57-year-old woman is recently widowed. She states, 'I will never be able to learn how to manage the finances. My husband did all of that.' Select the nurse's response that could help raise the client's self-esteem.

• A. "You feel inadequate because you have never learned to balance a checkbook."?
• B. "You should have insisted your husband teach you about the finances."?
• C. "You are strong and will learn how to manage your finances after a while."?
• D. "Why don't you take a class in basic finance from the local college?"?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse can raise the client's self-esteem by acknowledging the client's feelings and providing positive reinforcement. Choice C shows empathy and support by recognizing the client's strength and potential to learn. This response encourages the client to believe in her abilities and instills confidence. Choices A and B may come across as judgmental or critical, which can further lower the client's self-esteem. Choice D, while offering a solution, does not address the client's emotional needs or provide direct reassurance about her capabilities.

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