NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Nclex Practice Questions 2024
1. A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency room with a piece of metal in his eye. Which action by the nurse is correct?
- A. Use a magnet to remove the object.
- B. Rinse the eye thoroughly with saline.
- C. Cover both eyes with paper cups.
- D. Administer eye drops immediately.
Correct answer: Cover both eyes with paper cups.
Rationale: Covering both eyes with paper cups is the correct action as it helps prevent consensual movement of the affected eye. Attempting to remove the object with a magnet might cause trauma, making choice A incorrect. While rinsing the eye with saline may be necessary, it should be ordered by a doctor and is not the initial action for the nurse, making choice B incorrect. Administering eye drops immediately, as in choice D, is not appropriate in this scenario and does not address the primary concern of preventing further damage by limiting eye movement.
2. The nurse receives an order to administer phenytoin through the client’s J-tube. The order instructs that tube feedings are stopped at least an hour prior to administering the medication and an hour after the medication is administered. Which of the following considerations may be a reason to discuss this order with the physician?
- A. The client has a history of Type II diabetes.
- B. The client is on a continuous tube-feeding regimen.
- C. The client is on fluid restriction.
- D. The pharmacy has provided phenytoin in tablet form.
Correct answer: The client is on a continuous tube-feeding regimen.
Rationale: For a client on a continuous tube-feeding regimen, stopping tube feedings for two hours to administer this medication may compromise the client’s nutritional status. This interruption can lead to inadequate nutrient intake, affecting the client's overall nutritional well-being. The other choices are less relevant in this situation. Type II diabetes does not directly impact the administration of phenytoin through a J-tube. Fluid restriction would not prevent the temporary interruption of tube feedings for medication administration. The form of phenytoin provided by the pharmacy does not impact the need to discuss the order with the physician regarding the client's continuous tube-feeding regimen.
3. Acyclovir (Zovirax) is the agent of choice for which of the following infections?
- A. HIV
- B. AIDS
- C. candida
- D. herpes
Correct answer: herpes
Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication specifically effective in treating herpes infections. It works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, shortening the duration of the infection. While Acyclovir can be used in HIV and AIDS patients to treat opportunistic viral infections, it is not a primary drug for managing HIV or AIDS itself. Candida is a type of fungus, and infections caused by Candida are treated with antifungal medications, not antivirals like Acyclovir. Therefore, the correct answer is herpes.
4. During a well-baby check of a 6-month-old infant, the nurse notes abrasions and petechiae of the palate. The nurse should:
- A. inquire about the possibility of sexual abuse.
- B. ask about the types of foods the child is eating.
- C. request to see the type of bottle used for feedings.
- D. question the parent about objects the child plays with.
Correct answer: inquire about the possibility of sexual abuse.
Rationale: The correct answer is to inquire about the possibility of sexual abuse. Injuries to the soft palate such as bruising, abrasions, and petechiae can be signs of sexual abuse in infants. While oral sex may not leave significant physical evidence, these findings should raise suspicion. Option A is correct as it focuses on addressing potential abuse. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because the child's diet, the type of bottle used for feedings, and play objects are not likely related to the observed injuries. The presence of oral injuries suggests considering sexual abuse rather than other factors.
5. A mother has just given birth to a baby who died soon after. The mother has been crying and states, “I can’t believe this has happened to me. I did everything right during this pregnancy.” How should the nurse respond to this mother?
- A. Tell her she did nothing wrong; it was God’s will.
- B. Tell her she can have another baby.
- C. Tell her that her behavior is not going to solve anything.
- D. Tell her nothing and let her mourn this loss in the manner she chooses.
Correct answer: Tell her nothing and let her mourn this loss in the manner she chooses.
Rationale: Perinatal loss is a significant tragedy for parents, and it is crucial to provide sensitive and compassionate care. When a mother expresses her disbelief and feelings of doing everything right during the pregnancy, it is important for the nurse to acknowledge her pain and allow her to grieve in her way. Telling her that she did nothing wrong and it was God's will (Choice A) may not be comforting and can come across as dismissive of her feelings. Suggesting she can have another baby (Choice B) is insensitive and overlooks the grief she is experiencing for the current loss. Telling her that her behavior is not going to solve anything (Choice C) is invalidating her emotions and not supportive in this situation. Therefore, the best approach is to support her in her mourning process by respecting her feelings and allowing her to express her grief as she sees fit.
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