Nursing Elites

1. A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency room with a piece of metal in his eye. Which action by the nurse is correct?

• A. Use a magnet to remove the object.
• B. Rinse the eye thoroughly with saline.
• C. Cover both eyes with paper cups.
• D. Administer eye drops immediately.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Covering both eyes with paper cups is the correct action as it helps prevent consensual movement of the affected eye. Attempting to remove the object with a magnet might cause trauma, making choice A incorrect. While rinsing the eye with saline may be necessary, it should be ordered by a doctor and is not the initial action for the nurse, making choice B incorrect. Administering eye drops immediately, as in choice D, is not appropriate in this scenario and does not address the primary concern of preventing further damage by limiting eye movement.

2. A 57-year-old woman is recently widowed. She states, 'I will never be able to learn how to manage the finances. My husband did all of that.' Select the nurse's response that could help raise the client's self-esteem.

• A. "You feel inadequate because you have never learned to balance a checkbook."?
• B. "You should have insisted your husband teach you about the finances."?
• C. "You are strong and will learn how to manage your finances after a while."?
• D. "Why don't you take a class in basic finance from the local college?"?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse can raise the client's self-esteem by acknowledging the client's feelings and providing positive reinforcement. Choice C shows empathy and support by recognizing the client's strength and potential to learn. This response encourages the client to believe in her abilities and instills confidence. Choices A and B may come across as judgmental or critical, which can further lower the client's self-esteem. Choice D, while offering a solution, does not address the client's emotional needs or provide direct reassurance about her capabilities.

3. A 12-year-old male is brought to his primary care provider to determine whether sexual abuse has occurred. The mother states, 'Because there is no permanent physical damage, he does not need any more treatment.' The nurse's response should be based on which of the following pieces of information?

• A. Male victims of sexual abuse can have long-term psychological problems.
• B. Survivors of male sexual abuse might become confused about their sexual identity.
• C. Unless treated, all male sex abuse survivors grow up to abuse other children.
• D. All children who have been sexually abused have the same needs, regardless of gender.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Male children are sexually abused nearly as often as female children. Perpetrators are usually men but can be women. Needs of male children who have been sexually abused might be different from the needs of female survivors. Male survivors might respond in anger, question their sexuality, use alcohol and other drugs, and might try to prove their masculinity by performing daring acts. It is crucial for the nurse to consider these potential outcomes, making choice B the correct answer. Choice A is incorrect because male victims of sexual abuse can indeed have long-term psychological problems, so the nurse should be aware of this issue. Choice C is incorrect as not all male sex abuse survivors grow up to abuse other children, which is a misconception. Choice D is incorrect because the needs of children who have been sexually abused can vary based on various factors, including gender, so it is important to consider individual differences.

4. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

• A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
• B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
• C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
• D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

5. The child with seizure disorder is being treated with Dilantin (phenytoin). Which of the following statements by the patient's mother indicates to the nurse that the patient is experiencing a side effect of Dilantin therapy?

• A. "She is very irritable lately."?
• B. "She sleeps quite a bit of the time."?
• C. "Her gums look too big for her teeth."?
• D. "She has gained about 10 pounds in the last 6 months."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is '"Her gums look too big for her teeth."?' Hyperplasia of the gums is a known side effect associated with Dilantin therapy. Option A, '"She is very irritable lately,"?' is not a typical side effect of Dilantin. Option B, '"She sleeps quite a bit of the time,"?' is a common side effect of Dilantin but not specific to gum hyperplasia. Option D, '"She has gained about 10 pounds in the last 6 months,"?' is not typically associated with Dilantin therapy and is unrelated to the question.

Similar Questions