NCLEX-PN
Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions
1. A successful resolution of the nursing diagnosis Negative Self-Concept (related to unrealistic self-expectations) is when the client can:
- A. report a positive self-concept.
- B. identify negative thoughts.
- C. recognize positive thoughts.
- D. give one positive cue with each negative cue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'report a positive self-concept.' The problem statement is Negative Self-Concept, so the goal is for the client to achieve a positive self-concept. This involves helping the client recognize their worth and strengths. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the resolution of Negative Self-Concept. Identifying negative thoughts (B) is a step towards improvement but does not represent a successful resolution. Recognizing positive thoughts (C) is positive but not the primary goal in addressing Negative Self-Concept. 'Give one positive cue with each negative cue' (D) is not as comprehensive as achieving an overall positive self-concept.
2. A client who recently lost 50 pounds just received news that she is pregnant. A possible nursing diagnosis is:
- A. Actual Chronic Low Self-Esteem (related to obesity).
- B. Potential Chronic Low Self-Esteem (related to obesity).
- C. Actual Situational Low Self-Esteem (related to fear of weight regain and pregnancy).
- D. Potential Situational Low Self-Esteem (related to fear of weight regain and pregnancy).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's recent weight loss and subsequent pregnancy could lead to concerns about weight regain and body image. The most appropriate nursing diagnosis is 'Potential Situational Low Self-Esteem (related to fear of weight regain and pregnancy).' This diagnosis reflects the client's potential emotional response to the fear of losing the progress achieved through weight loss and dealing with changes in body image due to pregnancy. Options A and C imply that low self-esteem is already present, which is not supported by the information given. Option B is not as suitable as the client's self-esteem issues are more related to the fear of weight regain and pregnancy, making option D the best choice.
3. A two-year-old has been in the hospital for 3 weeks and has seldom seen family members due to isolation precautions. Which of the following hospitalization changes is most likely to be occurring?
- A. Guilt
- B. Trust
- C. Separation anxiety
- D. Shame
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Separation anxiety.' Separation anxiety is a common response in young children when they are separated from their primary caregivers for extended periods. In this case, the two-year-old being in the hospital for three weeks and not being able to see family members due to isolation precautions can trigger separation anxiety. 'Guilt' is a feeling of responsibility for wrongdoing, which is not the most likely change occurring in this scenario. 'Trust' involves reliance and confidence in others, not typically associated with prolonged separation from family. 'Shame' is a negative emotion related to feeling disgrace, which is not the most appropriate response in this hospitalization situation.
4. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?
- A. "I can drink alcohol now that I am decreasing my Xanax."?
- B. "I should not take another Xanax pill. Here is what is left of my last prescription."?
- C. "I should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, then one pill for one week."?
- D. "I can expect to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medicine."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, and then one pill for one week. This statement indicates a gradual tapering schedule, which is crucial when discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol should be avoided while tapering off benzodiazepines due to the increased risk of respiratory depression. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping alprazolam can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while drowsiness can be a side effect of alprazolam, it is not the primary concern when discontinuing the medication; preventing withdrawal symptoms is the priority.
5. A client with pancreatitis has been transferred to the intensive care unit. Which order would the nurse anticipate?
- A. Blood pressure monitoring every 15 minutes
- B. Insertion of a Levine tube
- C. Continuous cardiac monitoring
- D. Administration of pain medication every 4 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with pancreatitis who frequently experiences nausea and vomiting, insertion of a Levine tube is often anticipated to decompress the stomach and rest the bowel, helping to alleviate symptoms. This intervention is crucial in managing the gastrointestinal symptoms associated with pancreatitis. Blood pressure monitoring every 15 minutes may be necessary in some cases, but it is not a routine order for pancreatitis, making option A less likely. Continuous cardiac monitoring could be required based on the individual's condition, but it is not typically the first priority in pancreatitis management, so option C is not the most anticipated order. While pain medication administration is essential for managing discomfort, the priority in this scenario, especially considering the symptoms of nausea and vomiting, would be decompression with a Levine tube to address gastrointestinal issues, making option D less likely.
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