NCLEX-PN
Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions
1. A successful resolution of the nursing diagnosis Negative Self-Concept (related to unrealistic self-expectations) is when the client can:
- A. report a positive self-concept.
- B. identify negative thoughts.
- C. recognize positive thoughts.
- D. give one positive cue with each negative cue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'report a positive self-concept.' The problem statement is Negative Self-Concept, so the goal is for the client to achieve a positive self-concept. This involves helping the client recognize their worth and strengths. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the resolution of Negative Self-Concept. Identifying negative thoughts (B) is a step towards improvement but does not represent a successful resolution. Recognizing positive thoughts (C) is positive but not the primary goal in addressing Negative Self-Concept. 'Give one positive cue with each negative cue' (D) is not as comprehensive as achieving an overall positive self-concept.
2. Mrs. Owens is the 81-year-old mother of Jonathan, who is 54 years old. Jonathan has had schizophrenia since he was 16 years old. Which of Mrs. Owens's concerns is likely to predominate?
- A. "Will my retirement funds outlast me?"?
- B. "Who will handle my funeral arrangements?"?
- C. "What will become of Jonathan when I am gone?"?
- D. "How can I communicate effectively with Jonathan's physician?"?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most prominent concern for Mrs. Owens is likely what will happen to her son, Jonathan, after she passes away. While retirement fund sustainability is important, it is not likely to be her primary concern. Funeral arrangements, although significant, are secondary to the welfare of her son with schizophrenia. The question of how to communicate with Jonathan's physician is less likely to be a predominant concern since Mrs. Owens has likely already addressed this issue over the 38 years of managing her son's care.
3. The client is scheduled for a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis. Which medication should be kept available during the test?
- A. Atropine sulfate
- B. Furosemide
- C. Prostigmin
- D. Promethazine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis, Atropine sulfate should be kept available as it is the antidote for Tensilon and is administered to manage cholinergic crises that may occur during the test. Atropine sulfate helps counteract the excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system caused by Tensilon. Furosemide (choice B) is a diuretic and not related to managing Tensilon-induced crises. Prostigmin (choice C) is used to treat Myasthenia Gravis itself, not for managing the effects of Tensilon. Promethazine (choice D) is an antiemetic and antianxiety agent, which is not necessary for a Tensilon test. Therefore, Atropine sulfate (choice A) is the correct medication to have available during a Tensilon test, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this context.
4. The client is admitted with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Blood gases reveal pH 7.36, CO2 45, O2 84, HCO3 28. The nurse would assess the client to be in:
- A. Uncompensated acidosis
- B. Compensated alkalosis
- C. Compensated respiratory acidosis
- D. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client is experiencing compensated respiratory acidosis. The pH is within the normal range but is lower than 7.40, indicating acidity. The elevated CO2 level and low O2 level suggest respiratory involvement. The slightly elevated HCO3 level indicates a compensatory mechanism. In respiratory acidosis, the pH will be inversely related to the CO2 and bicarb levels, with elevated CO2 and HCO3 levels contributing to acidosis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the presented blood gas values and the compensatory response observed in this case.
5. A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency room with a piece of metal in his eye. Which action by the nurse is correct?
- A. Use a magnet to remove the object.
- B. Rinse the eye thoroughly with saline.
- C. Cover both eyes with paper cups.
- D. Administer eye drops immediately.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Covering both eyes with paper cups is the correct action as it helps prevent consensual movement of the affected eye. Attempting to remove the object with a magnet might cause trauma, making choice A incorrect. While rinsing the eye with saline may be necessary, it should be ordered by a doctor and is not the initial action for the nurse, making choice B incorrect. Administering eye drops immediately, as in choice D, is not appropriate in this scenario and does not address the primary concern of preventing further damage by limiting eye movement.
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